California Labor Code Section 2870 in light of forced arbitration agreements
Would it ever be possible for an employer to use a forced arbitration agreement to resolve a dispute regarding the employee's claim on IP that would otherwise qualify as a non-assignable invention?
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[ 5.0 ms ] story [ 16.7 ms ] threadEDIT: It also seems like you'd have to be really unlucky to get an arbitrator corrupt enough to go against the language in section 2870.