Ask HN: What scientific phenomenon do you wish someone would explain better?

607 points by qqqqquinnnnn ↗ HN
I've been studying viruses lately, and have found that the line between virus/exosome/self is much more blurry than I realized. But, given the niche interest in the subject, most articles are not written with an overview in mind.

What sorts of topics make you feel this way?

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Another frustrating one - what is heredity? If it's possible to inherit something due to a shift in behavior (i.e. it's a cultural change that leads to a biochemical change), how does that connect neatly to mendalian inheritance?
Are you talking epigenetics? It's relatively closely related to mendelian inheritance. At a high level view, if genes are present in your genome that aren't "on" in a previous generation, but due to changes in behavior become more active, then in a future generation that gene could be expressed more. It's not that the genes have changed their code, they are just flipped on or off.
No, more things that are modifications without any genetic basis - like myopia. Doesn't seem to have any genetic/epigenetic basis. It's purely a physical use case, where the eye matures improperly if it's only exposed to near-field work.
One hypothesis: kids learn to do what their parents do. If near field work or hobbies cause the problem then it follows that some kids will "inherit" it through mimicry.
ah, I see what you're saying. Luckily, I've looked into this specific topic!

Myopia is definitely hereditary, especially the pathologic variants that can lead to retinal tears and the like.

That being said, there is the process of refractive development that occurs early on in life. The eye develops at a frighteningly fast pace, and you achieve near-adult globe size after about 18 months. The genes that drive this refractive development could be hereditary, if that is what you're trying to figure out.

Now, we can make a claim that this adaptation during infancy could eventually affect our genome, but I have not delved into the epigenetic literature to determine if that has been borne out or not.

90% saturation in a few generations suggests that it is something other than purely hereditary mutations accumulating: https://www.nature.com/news/the-myopia-boom-1.17120
I know, I'm not saying that these are hereditary mutations. I'm saying that genes in all of us are involved in refractive development, and thus have to be inherited if mutations exist. I'm saying that our environment of myopic environments is feedback that forces our eyes to develop to support better focus at those distances.
Quantum Mechanics, and why we need interpretations of it.
Like.... why are sub-atomic phenomena important in general?
To add to all this, the double-slit experiment. What exactly does it mean that light moves as a wave or a particle?
>What exactly does it mean that light moves as a wave or a particle?

One idea is known as the Copenhagen interpretation.

It basically says that the wave-like effects we associate with matter is merely a wave of probabilities. Or in terms of the double-slit experiment and in other words, light behaves like a particle, but the wave-like effects you see is just the result of probabilities where the particles end up. Dark areas are areas of low probability, and lighter areas high probability.

One might imagine the light particles streaming through the slit end up having slight variation in trajectory from one particle to another (for various reasons such as interference with other particles), which results in areas where most particles end up and others where few end up... representing a wave.

Why Quantum Mechanics I have no idea.

Why interpretations: There is an experiment you can do that is hard to explain: Either particles are able to somehow influence each other faster than light (non-local), or the particle somehow doesn't exist except when interacting with some other particle (non-real).

Try this video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zcqZHYo7ONs the AHA moment in the video comes when you realize you can entangle the light and that adding a filter by one stream of light somehow causes the other stream of light to also be influenced.

I have tried to grok it multiple times but escapes my feeble mind. I have developed some intuition, but not sure it's quite right. Hopefully someone can correct me:

1. Subatomic Matter is by default both mass and a wave, but when "observed" it becomes a particle as we know it i.e. with mass.

2. Atomic bonds are formed due to electrons (waves) being shared between adjacent atoms.

Hope I have some parts correct. Perhaps someone can shed some photons.

the problem with quantum mechanics is that we cannot directly observe what is going on (and the instruments we use to do the observations are also subject to quantum mechanics effects), so to explain certain phenomena we have come up with different theories that approximate what is going on. These theories work for certain cases but nobody has come up with a comprehensive theory that can be experimentally tested and works for all cases.

Here is a few books you can read on the subject. They do a pretty good job on describing what the issue is and what the interpretations mean:

Max Tegmark - Our Mathematical Universe

Sean M. Carroll - Something Deeply Hidden

Adam Becker - What is real?

Here are some things you can google if you want to just skim the subject: Wave–particle duality, The Measurement Problem, Quantum decoherence, Copenhagen interpretation, Bell's theorem, Superdeterminism, Many-worlds interpretation, Ghirardi–Rimini–Weber theory (GRW).

Last but not least, look at the Wolfram Physics Project. (https://wolframphysics.org). The take on quantum mechanics if you go along with the idea of hyper-graph is fascinating (to me)

There are two broad reasons for having interpretations. First, because the results contradict our intuitions, and there's no agreement on which ones are sensible to abandon. Second, because there are experiments that we can't perform now (and maybe ever), so there's room for different hypotheses. This would lead to different theories, not just interpretations, but often these ideas are lumped together.
How can metric expansion of space redshift light? Doesn't that violate conservation of momentum, since the redder light has lower momentum?

And adding on to that: Will light inside a box redshift? If I weigh the box (i.e. weigh the light inside the box), then wait a bit for the light to redshift, then weigh the box again?

You are correct! Cosmological redshift does violate conservation of momentum (and energy as well [1]). But conservation of energy and momentum does not actually apply if spacetime itself is globally changing.

The underlying reason for this is that Noether's theorem tells us that every physical symmetry implies a conservation law for some physical quantity. Conservation of energy and momentum comes from the fact that the physical laws are the same throughout time and space. However, cosmological expansion violates that assumption, so there is no reason that energy and momentum should still be conserved. [2]

[1]: One side note here is that relativistically, energy and momentum are not really separate physical quantities, but instead two components of the same underlying physical quantity. Unfortuantely, this quantity does not really have a good name (despite Taylor & Wheeler's attempt to call it "momenergy"). It ends up being called the momentum 4-vector, but the temporal component of this 4-vector is energy.

[2]: This is only true globally. Locally, the laws are approximately the same from one moment to the next, so conservation of energy and momentum hold for small distances and short times.

Orbital mechanics
I've been meaning to do a bit of blogging about this since my thesis work was on gravitational dynamics. Is there anything in particular you would be interested in seeing explained?
Have you heard of / played the game Kerbal Space Program?

I believe even folks at NASA have even said it helped cement their mathematical knowledge with a better intuitive understanding.

Protein Folding
Protein folding is amazing! Seems like it happens in realtime as it's synthesized by the ribosome.. I'll dig around and see if I can find a better resource for you.
Isn't protein folding considered one of the biggest problems ever?
sure is.. but somehow biology manages it with few issues. It seems like it has a lot to do with the presence of chaperone proteins that babysit the protein as it's coming off the ribosome, preventing pieces of it from sticking together that shouldn't touch, etc.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Protein#/media/File:Chaperonin...

I'm working on making a model of this chaperone complex relative to a folded protein to get a sense of how it might be interacting with the amino acid chain before it becomes globular

What would you like to know about protein folding? How it even happens, or how we are trying to "figure it out"?
Why tardigrades are so hardy, how their biology is so different?

How immune system and medications work.

Why some plastics are recyclable and others are not.

I've been mulling making a youtube channel with ten minute videos on immunology; what would be a good starter video that might interest someone like you? I thought I'll do something about antibodies as drugs!
Thank you and please please do it and post a link here or send me an email (in profile)! For me the most interesting is the recognition/pattern matching aspect: how antibodies find what to attack and what to leave alone.
Most definitely one of the hardest questions to answer :) I'll take it up as a challenge!
If you're taking requests... distinguishing Self vs nonself...what we know and what we don't.
All plastics are recyclable in the sense that they can be repurposed, but thermoset polymers cannot be repurposed to be used the same way as it was originally formed. Typically they are chopped up and used as matrix materials for asphalt or other composites. In some cases they can use solvents to break down chains into smaller building blocks. However, colloquially thermoset polymers are considered non-recyclable, while thermoplastic polymers are considered recyclable.

The difference between thermoset and thermoplastic polymers has to do with irreversible chemical bonding during curing. With thermosets, you have chemical bonds between molecules preventing deformation, whereas with thermoplastics, you just have a viscous friction between molecules that varies with temperature. If you heat up a thermoplastic, that viscous friction goes away and the plastic can be remolded.

>Tardigrades: No comment.

>The immune system: The most awesome thing ever.

It's actually two systems. One called the innate that we have in common with most forms of complex life, and the adaptive immune system, something we've only seen manifested in jawed vertebrates.

The innate immune system is a set of cellular signals/behaviors that are triggered by cells being exposed to damage and or stress.

These responses are generalized. Just about anything odd can invoke them, so they are typically the first line of defense. These include things like alteration of permeability of the local extracellular matrix (swelling), formation of impermeable tissue barriers to isolate damage (cysting, compartmentalization), and setting up signaling molecule gradients that attract phagocytic/cytotoxic cells to the terminate anomalous cellular activity/clean up the place (macrophage attraction), and alteration of metabolic activity to generate thermal stress (fever).

The issue with the general immune system though, is that it's non-specificity and versatility makes it a bit like a sledgehammer in the context of a complex organism. It can do as much or more damage as it can do good, and it isn't that good at only eradicating the exact thing causing the issue without excessive collateral damage.

Enter the adaptive immune system. The adaptive immune system is composed of various cell lines, and organ systems all specialized into dealing with specific facets of an immune response, and mediated through a set of special cellular surface receptors.

The facets of the adaptive immune response are: antigen recognition, coordination, moderation, and memory.

The major cell lines are T and B cells. T cells are further broken down into cytotoxic T, and helper T cells.

The adaptive immune system starts with naive lymphocytes. These cells rapidly multiply randomizing the ever loving crap out the region of the genome dedicated to the MHC receptor. By doing this, it'll cause the receptor to fold in ways that will allow it to bind with certain types of antigen (think of it as the antigen's key fitting the Mac's lock.) This proves of new receptor generation is mediated by the Thymus. The thymus tests every new variant to see whether there is any sensitivity to proteins that may expressed in other parts of the body. If it finds that to be the case, itinduces that particular cell to suicide to prevent the proliferation of immune cell lines with a high chance of being prone to autoimmunity. Those that survive are allowed to move out into the lymphatic and circulatory systems to patrol for their particular antigen. Upon meeting it, a few things happen. First off, the immune cell can help kick off or amplify a general immune response. Secondly, signaling proteins are released to attract more leukocytes to the area. Third, an antigen bearing cell will migrate toward the Thymus to recruit more immune cells. Once an antigen presenting helper T cell binds with a compatible B or Cytotoxic T cell line, that cell line undergoes massive replication without further modifying it's receptor, and the helper T cell does likewise.

B cells will create and secrete antibodies. Small snippets of protein that will bind to and foul up the workings of the antigen to which the are sensitive.

Cytotoxic T cells will patrol for and engulf antigen it encounters, either breaking it down with a burst of oxidative substances, or if the antigen is detected being presented on a cellular membrane protein, and a helper T cell is near by to enable the response, a cytotoxic T cell can induce cell death of an antigen presenting cell, but with much greater specificity and numbers than the mechanism used by macrophages. Once the cell death takes place, the cell will either clean up the remains, or attract macrophages to do so while it heads off for the next target.

The cytotoxic T cells are handicapped in their destructive potential by the need for a nearby Helper T cell. B cells just shotgun anti-antigens into the ...

Thanks for a detailed writeup, which seems for the most part in agreement with my understanding technically. But then you kinda tried to summarize janeways in a few paragraphs, and that means no one who doesn't already know immunology is going to find it helpful. In fact, Janeway itself tries to summarize their book in the first chapter and that chapter goes on for 50 pages iirc.

Some fundamental concepts that might fly over someone without a biology degree might include the absolutely fundamental requirement of protein binding for any biological process (akin to a transistors function for a computing device).

I'm thinking that step one of communicating the entire immune systems complexity is probably omission, of anything that's not absolutely required for comprehension of the basic concept. In that regard I'm not convinced there's any need for bringing up the innate system first (there's a reason we discovered it quite recently, perhaps?). Other details can also be similarly "omitted" for simplicity perhaps. What are your thoughts?

I haven't heard of Janeway's, and I apologize for the lack of proofreading. The immune system is one of the most fascinating things I've ever deep dived into. So I can get a bit ramble when the chance to ramble occurs.

There are so many odd facets of it with interesting implications; like did you know exposure to sex hormones actually contributes to the atrophy of the Thymus over time? This is posited to have some relation to the increased likelyhood of developing autoimmunity 0roblems as we get older.

Also, not all T cell lines undergo adverse selection in the Thymus. There is a smaller population of more autoimmune sensitive cells that develop and specialize in the extremities. It is theorized this is evolutionary selected for because there is a tradeoff between being able to develop to a wide variety of pathogens, and being free of auto immunity. So you keep a small group of possibly autoreactivr immunity cell lines just in case. This is theorized to explain the prevalence of autoimmunity issues in the extremities being relatively common.

The Coriolis Force
Drag a marker with a constant radial velocity (from your perspective) across a spinning disk. It'll trace out a curved line, so from the perspective of an observer on the disk, an acceleration must have been present.

The full 3d Coriolis force is more complicated than that (eg accounting for the Eötvös effect): The spinning disk example only gets you to the -2vω term (where v denotes radial velocity and ω angular velocity).

Non-interactive zero knowledge proofs.

ZK proofs have a number of good explainers, mostly using graph colorings. Non-interactive versions, however, require quite a bit more than that explanation allows - and despite asking experts, I still haven't found a good, basic explanation.

I liked this PDF that starts with using modular arithmetic to prove knowledge of polynomial, using bilinear EC pairings to make it self and then, finally, encoding computations as polynomials: https://arxiv.org/pdf/1906.07221.pdf
Quantum entanglement. How do they know it's happening?
The Quantum Computing for Computer Scientists video by Microsoft Research (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=F_Riqjdh2oM) really hammered it home for me. It goes slowly and the presenter, in his own words "shuts up and does the math".
Subreddit /r/askscience does a good job at explaining science in plain words. I usually google "site:reddit.com/r/askscience/ __QUESTION__".

The StackExchange sites have less coverage and answers tend to be more technical.

University websites return reliable answers, but often neither short nor accessible.

Fermat's theorem: a^n + b^n = c^n For n > 2, why are there no integers a, b, and c that satisfy the equality?
One of my advisors in college said "The proof takes about 10 years of graduate mathematics to understand".
Is there really no intuitive way to communicate the answer to that question without needing 10 years of grad math? I find that to be somewhat hard to believe
If there were a simple and intuitive way to communicate the answer then I would suggest that we probably would have figured it out in our 300+ years in which this was one of the most famous unanswered questions in mathematics.
No, there is no intuitive way to communicate it. The theorem has taken >350 years to prove, which makes it clear that the proof is not some intuition that was somehow missed by hundreds of people for centuries.

Fermat's Last Theorem (book) by Simon Singh is the source to check out if you're interested in the details of how it eluded mathematicians and a general idea of how the problem was solved, without getting too technical. It's a great story well told.

Well, the answer is "simple": It's because the modularity theorem was proven (or better, the Tanyiama-Shimura conjecture was proven)

But why that solves the problem? Because it connects two branches of mathematics (modular forms and elliptic equations) in a way that proves that equations of that form cannot exist (where the exponent is > 2)

Though there probably is an easier way of explaining it, it is strongly suspected that Fermat got the wrong idea there.

I still like the idea that Fermat had a legit proof and that one day a simpler one will be found.

I also like that FLT follows easily from the Beal conjecture, which seems overlooked. Maybe its overlooked because its closely related to some other (harder to understand) conjectures.

It's not my specialty, but there are easier proof today. Probably 5 years of graduate math is enough ;).

@GP: I'd recommend to try to read an understand the proof for N=3. (And why that approach does not extend to bigger N.) It requires only undergraduate level math and it is much much much easier. It uses very different tools, so it will give you very little insight of the general proof, but it will give you some taste of the problems of the proof.

I had a very mathy explanation of Spinodal Decomposition in my graduate work. I wonder if there's a more intuitive explanation than just "that's how the energy landscape works".
Hmmm, you might look up how dendrites form. They’re roughly analogous in how the thermodynamics are favorable to forming more complex structures, IIRC. But it’s easier/more intuit to see how dendrites form. Dendrite formation is also a huge problem in many fields, like electronics manufacturing (eg tin whiskers).
Wave-particle duality (of e.g. light)
The usual misunderstanding is that light is sometimes a wave and sometimes a particle, but that is wrong. Light is always a weird thing, that you have never seen before in macroscopic objects, and you need to use some math to describe.

In some experiments the weird mathematical thing can be approximated as an almost classical particle. That approximation simplifies the calculation a lot, and sometime you can get some result intuitively. But it is never true, it is only a very good approximation.

In some experiments the weird mathematical thing can be approximated as an almost classical wave. That approximation simplifies the calculation a lot, and sometime you can get some result intuitively. But it is never true, it is only a very good approximation.

Try to read again everything you have read about the subject, but every time the text says "here light is a wave/particle" use a red marker to rewrite that sentence as "here light can be approximated as a wave/particle".

Spin aka intrinsic angular momentum
Basocally, we can think of momentum in two parts: the momentum of an object orbitting another, and the momentum of the object spinning on an axis.

At the subatomic level, we observe that electrons have some extra angular momentum, beyond what we'd expect from their "orbits". We call that spin, because it's intrinsic, like the spinning of a macroscale object.

Gravity wells. I only realised in my 20s that the only reason satellites can orbit the Earth without crashing into the ground is by going sideways really, really fast. So as they inch closer to the ground, they also travel parallel to the ground fast enough so that they stay approximately the same height from the ground.
This is Newton's Cannonball. Honestly, I've found the best way to learn more about orbital mechanics is with a simulator - Kerbal Space Program is a fun version.
What other subjects would simulation enlighten people on?
Bell's theorem. It somehow proves that quantum physics is incompatible with local hidden variables, but I could never see an understandable explanation (for me at least) of just how it works.
Yudkowsky's explanation[1] is the first one that worked for me. I later found Quantum mysteries for anyone[2] helpful. The latter has less soap-boxing.

1: https://www.lesswrong.com/posts/AnHJX42C6r6deohTG/bell-s-the...

2: https://kantin.sabanciuniv.edu/sites/kantin.sabanciuniv.edu/...

I started to read the first one but his insistence that Many Worlds is true was too frustrating. Many Worlds Theorem seems specifically useful at saying "the variables aren't hidden because everything before wavefunction collapses actually plays out in different worlds.

But, we specifically have no way of proving that theory. So now we're back to the essence of the original question - if these things seem random why do we know that they're in fact deterministic without any hidden variables?

Well, I'd recommend to read the whole series. It's not so bad as it sounds. There are so many steps from where you are to appreciating the utter weirdness of Bell's experimental result. Not the weirdness of any theory (or an interpretation, which Many Worlds actually is) but of the basic experimental result.

If you are properly amazed by it, rejecting MWI or any crazy-ish borderline-conspiracy theory seems suddenly a lot harder.

I feel the whole Yudkowsky's QM series in fact served to deliver that one post.

To be clear, I don't reject Many Worlds at all and in fact consider it a promising candidate due to it sort of "falling out" of the Schrodinger's equations taken literally unless you add complexity.

But the fact remains that it is impossible to prove and it is conveniently well equipped to handle this situation. I'd prefer an argument that presupposes the Copenhagen interpretation as that is when my intuition fails.

If experimenters disprove Many Worlds, they've also disproved Copenhagen. These are exactly the same equations after all.

Theoreticians choose very different mindsets about the same equations, which (they say) somehow create them grounds to form various new hypotheses. As far as I know neither approach was very fruitful so far in terms of new science, so people try multitude of others.

What I've meant to say above, I have much trouble using Copenhagen to understand Bell's experiment. MWI fits the bill here for me.

>But the fact remains that it is impossible to prove and it is conveniently well equipped to handle this situation. I'd prefer an argument that presupposes the Copenhagen interpretation as that is when my intuition fails.

Is that not like trying to get a better intuition for planetary movement by using an epicycle-based model? The fact that the interpretation is conveniently shaped in a way that a paradox isn't an issue is not a coincidental thing that should be overlooked in the spirit of fairness to alternative interpretations. Regardless, I think my post below is useful for answering your want.

>So now we're back to the essence of the original question - if these things seem random why do we know that they're in fact deterministic without any hidden variables?

The world is only deterministic under Many-Worlds, and it's deterministic in the sense of "each outcome happens (mostly) separately". It doesn't make any sense to try to make sense of the "deterministic" part separately from MWI. MWI is the only deterministic QM theory (unless you're going to consider "superdeterminism", but there's nothing concrete to that interpretation besides "what if there existed a way that we had QM+determinism but not MWI". There's no basis to it, besides a yearning from people that like the abstract idea of determinism and don't like the abstract idea of MWI).

EPR doesn't tell us that the world is deterministic. It tells us that local hidden variable interpretations (where experiments have a single outcome) of QM can't work, because it shows that a measurement on a particle can appear to you to affect the measurement made by someone else on a distant particle. The Copenhagen interpretation response to this is that the wave function collapse must be faster than light. Therefore, the Copenhagen interpretation is not a "local" theory. (The Copenhagen interpretation doesn't give us any answer for who we should expect to trigger this wave function collapse first when two measurements are taken simultaneously at a distance though.)

Why isn't the MWI another form of hidden variables (a supremely non-parsimonious one at that), where the hidden variable is which of the many worlds you happen to inhabit?
An awesome question. That is exactly what I have been wondering without being able to put it into words, and this is core of why the MW seems completely uselsess to me as a scientific theory. (As a philosophical one-maybe? But science?)
I think you can make an argument for viewing it that way, depending on exactly what you mean by "you".

But IIUC, one of the remarkable things about MWI is that it would be a local hidden variable theory!

This is a very important property to have because the principle of locality is deeply ingrained in the way the Universe behaves. Note that (almost?) no other quantum interpretation is both realist and local at the same time.

Maybe you wonder, how is it possible that MWI can be considered a local hidden variable theory if Bell's theorem precisely shows that local hidden variable theories are not possible?

I think that it was Bell himself who said that the theorem is only valid if you assume that there is only one outcome every time you run the experiment, which is not the case in MWI.

This means that MWI is one of the few (the only?) interpretation we have that can explain how we observe Bell's theorem while still being a local, deterministic, realist, hidden variable theory.

For it to be local (causality does not propagate faster than light), it must be superdeterministic (all the many worlds that ever will be, already are). For it not to be superdeterministic (many worlds decohere at the moment of experimentation), it is also not local (the decoherence happens faster than the speed of light, across the universe).
I'm sorry but I don't follow.

If you take the Bell test experiment where Alice and Bob perform their measurements at approximately the same time but very far apart, I think you and I both agree that when Alice does a measurement and observes an outcome, she will have locally decohered from the world where she observes the other outcome.

But I don't see why the decoherence necessarily has to happen faster than the speed of the light.

It makes sense that even if Alice decoheres from the world where she observes the other outcome, the outcomes of Bob's measurement are still in a superposition with respect to each Alice (and vice-versa).

And that only when Alices' and Bobs' light cones intersect each other will the Alices decohere from the Bobs in such a way that the resulting worlds will observe the expected correlations (due to how they were entangled or maybe even due to the worlds interfering with each other when their light cones intersect, like what happens in general with the wave function).

I admit I'm not an expert in this area, but is this not possible?

I trust Yudkowsky on many things, but not on that explanation. It's still quite complicated, and a couple of times I miserably failed to reconstruct it over a beer or two. A red flag.

Plus, I'd rather expect at least one professional (QED) physicist exists able to explain it and he isn't one. Mermin is, but the explanation is decidedly less clear.

BTW I came here to say Bell's inequality as well. For me it's as baffling as science could ever be.

Minute Physics and 3brown1blue did a two part collab that simplifies some of it down to a counting problem that'd be suitable for grade school.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zcqZHYo7ONs

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=MzRCDLre1b4

I have seen the example with the polarized lenses in a few places, but they dont explain why (imo) the simplest explanation does not apply. Namely that the lens itself might disturb the phase of the light, which would then mean it can pass through the next lens.
The idea is that polarization is only one of many places where the effect is observed.
But if you take away the third lens, there is no light of any polarization. How is it that by adding a filter, you create light where there was none?
Only if you take away the middle lens, not the third.

Here's what I would have thought happens: After the first lens, you get polarized light, 90deg offset from the last lens, so no light passes. Then you introduce a 3rd lens in the middle, 45deg offset. This could alter the polarization (maybe it widens the band, or introduce some greater variance, shifts it who knows), and this is why now some light will pass through number 3. No need to create any light

If it is true that placing the 45 degree lens third or first does not show the same effect, it is much less astonishing.
The short answer is this. Suppose thread OP gave you and I a box each. Each box has a some knobs to choose some settings, and if one chooses a setting and presses the GO button, a number pops up on the screen. We go far away from each other so that, due to the finite speed of light, it takes quite a while for any information to travel between the boxes. We do this, because we don't want the boxes to communicate live, even though thread OP might have recorded the same data into the memory drive of both boxes.

Then we choose some settings and press GO and record whatever number pops up. We do this many times so we each have a nice frequency chart. Now Bell proved that if you live in a local hidden variable universe, the correlations between these numbers is upper bounded, no matter how you choose settings on the boxes. Then, he also gave a prescription for choosing the settings, such that if you live a in quantum universe, the correlations between these numbers will be higher than the upper bound.

The rest is mathematics, which cannot really be simplified without leaving the reader unsatisfied.

So what I don't understand is, if both of us take an identical Gemalto token / Yuvikey, we can be light years apart and get the same sequences, no? Is the explanation that these will have one type of distribution vs if they had real "spooky movement at a distance" they have a clear different distribution? EDIT: what about this one: https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0301059
The distance is part of the proof, but not really part of the mystery.

I'm going to throw out an analogy that gets at what's observed and why it's surprising, but doesn't relate to the physics of spin, momentum, position or anything that's actually under observation in these experiments.

It's as if we have a pair of dice, and I throw my die and you throw your die many times. In a classical world, if I throw a three, it has no influence on what you throw; you're equally likely to throw 1-6. But in the quantum world it's as if when I throw a one, your die still has the expected uniform distribution, but when I happen to throw a three, you're a little bit more likely to throw a three. Your die is fair if I happen to roll a one, but it's weighted if I happen to throw a three.

Back in the real world, this is the strange behavior that is observed in experiment. Schroedinger's equation predicts the probabilities perfectly. But Bell shows that it's far from intuitive.

Here's the thought experiment that sold me on how weird this stuff is.

Imagine explorers on Mars find the ruins of an ancient alien civilization. In those ruins they find several small devices that have three buttons. Beside each button are two colored lights. red and blue. Above the buttons is a display. The linguistics team figured out enough alien writing to tell that the buttons are labeled with the alien's equivalent of A, B, and C, and that the display is a numerical display that goes from 0 to 38413 displayed in base 14 (which fits with other evidence found that the aliens have two hands with 7 fingers).

There is also some kind of docking station, which can hold two of the devices, and has a single button.

If two of the devices are placed in the docking station and its button is pressed, all the lights briefly flash on the devices, and the counter resets to 0. The lights stay on until the device is removed from the dock. Nothing happens if only one device is placed in the dock.

To try to figure out what these devices do, pairs are placed in the dock, reset, and then given to a couple people who go off and press the device buttons are record what happens.

Here is what those people observe.

1. If they press one of the buttons (A, B, or C), exactly one of the two lights next to that button comes on. When the button is released, the light goes out, and the counter goes up by 1, until it reaches 38413. After the next press/release, the counter goes blank and the device is unresponsive until reset again in the dock.

2. As far as anyone can tell, there is no pattern to which light lights. It acts as if pressing a button consults a perfect true unbiased uniformly distributed random bit generator to decide between red and blue.

3. When they compare their results with those of the person who had the box that was their box's dock mate for reset, they find that if on each person's n'th press

-- if they both pressed A, or both pressed B, or both pressed C, they got the same color light.

-- if one of them pressed B, and the other pressed either A or C, they got the same color light 85.36% of the time.

-- if one of them pressed A and the other pressed C, they got the same color light 50% of the time.

4. These results do not depend on the timing between the two people's presses. Those correlations are the same if the people happen to make their n'th press at the same time, or at wildly different times. Even if one person goes through all their presses before the other even starts, their n'th presses exhibit the above correlations.

5. These results do not depend on the distance between the boxes. If a box pair is split up, with one person taking theirs back to Earth while the other remains on Mars, and the two then run through all their presses at nearly the same time, completing quickly enough that there can be no communication between the two boxes during the run due to speed of light limits, they still exhibit the correlations.

Challenge: try to figure out how such boxes could be built without using quantum entanglement. Assume the aliens have nearly unlimited storage technology, so you can include ridiculously large tables if you want, so you can even propose solutions that involve the dock preloading the responses for every possible sequence of presses (all 3^38414 of them). Anything goes as long as it produces the right correlations, and does not involve quantum entanglement.

I can recommend Ball's _Beyond Weird_ for the best explanation targeting a lay audience that I've read.
Coroutines in C++.
Coroutines are most easily understood as a way to write a state machine in a way that looks like a function. I.e., it's just a notational trick to make one function do different things according to when it's called.

To see it, imagine you have a struct with a data member for each local variable of your function, and replace your function with a member function that has no local variables, but uses "this" to get at what was local data.

Add one more data member, a number that is set differently right before each place the function returns.

Finally, insert some code at the start of the function that, according to the number, jumps to just after the last return statement executed.

Then, each time you call the function, what happens depends on what happened last time.

There are more details, but that is the gist.

You can write that yourself in C++98, with the body of the function inside a switch statement. Getting it past code review would be the real challenge.

I think I get coroutines in theory. It's the C++ specific complexity that is the hardest barrier. Thanks for the explanation though
Yes, a lot of extra junk is needed to make them actually work, but the extra junk goes a long way toward obscuring what you actually need to know.

Ultimately, though, you are right that you have to understand it all, once, even if you can't remember it all a month later. The explanations I find online are not good at presenting just the details you need when you need them, and building up to the full picture.

Try to understand them in Simula first, since that's where C++ drew its original inspiration from.
I like that for a full decade, people discussed measurements at reputable labs indicating that certain radioactive species decayed at rates that varied >0.1% depending on the season, and explored possible neutrino flux influences.

The measurements were finally shown to be effects of the immediate environment on the measurement apparatus.

That detectors used in labs may vary with time by >0.1%, unknown to their users, seems pretty important. How did everybody involved not know?

Because people live in a busy world, where knowledge is not transferred with enough love and integrity. And also people are afraid to say "I don't know" and what little they know they tend not to share.

To make things more specific, those labs had uncertainty budget with something like 20 terms for the things they measured. Each of those terms had associated probability distribution etc. They had uncertainty budgets for all the methods they did etc., and some of those where probably dated, done by someone else, etc. etc. Who checks that? Is the check rigorous enough? Are some assumptions made that don't hold to scrutiny?

So it is actually very easy for error to creep in, I would say actually very likely.

I've always had trouble following Searle's Chinese Room argument as it applies to the nature and identification of intelligent action. I've never understood how the Chinese Room shows what its adherents say it shows, so that would be one topic I'd like to see more perspectives on.
"Searle understands nothing of Chinese, and yet, by following the program for manipulating symbols and numerals just as a computer does, he sends appropriate strings of Chinese characters back out under the door, and this leads those outside to mistakenly suppose there is a Chinese speaker in the room. "

I have trouble with this too. I think it's actually incorrect, or at least misleading. I think what it's _trying_ to say is that even if an entity can perform a complex task doesn't mean it can understand a complex task.

I think the more important result of this argument is that certain complex tasks can be "pre-baked" into rulesets _by an existing intelligence_. To me this just means that intelligent entities can sort of copy parts of their intelligence into other entities which are not intelligent i.e. computer programming.

I think with this argument they're trying to say "a series of sufficiently complex if statements isn't necessarily intelligent" by choosing something we know computers are good at - string manipulations and applying it to something we consider intelligence - language translation.

The argument holds that the computer is obviously not intelligent because it's just a function that takes a character and outputs another character.

But it needs to be a convincing translation, right? The computer would then be able to spit out not just accurate translations but also properly converted cultural idioms and new combinations of words where one didn't exist in the other language. That requires context of surrounding characters, memory of common language use, statistical analysis and creativity.

One implication that arises from this argument is actually about humans. How do we know that we aren't all just incredibly detailed rulesets ourselves without any actual understanding?

Well, first off - we technically can't prove it for anyone other than ourselves. More pragmatically, it's obvious that we, unlike the computer translator, can probe ourselves and be probed by others on whether or not we understand the subject. It's not like we're a bunch of Boltzmann's Brains that just happened into existence. We evolved intelligence in order to survive, not to "trick" other intelligent beings into thinking we're more intelligent than we are. There's no need for that. There's no one smarter around that we need to "trick".

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Fourier Transforms. I'd wish I had a intuitive understanding of how they work. Until then I'm stuck with just believing that the magic works out.
3blue1brown has a great video on the topic: https://youtu.be/spUNpyF58BY
I have to say that video completely changed the level of my understanding about it. Especially the bit of visually intuitively understanding why the imaginary terms are the integration of the wrapping of the frequency component. Well worth watching.
Every analytical function, like f(x)=x^2-log(x+1), or signal, like a radio signal, can be rewritten as as infinite sum of sines and cosines. The Fourier transform helps you break down these components for you
The best way to understand the Fourier transformations is to think of them as change-of-basis operations, like we do in linear algebra. Specifically a change from the "time basis" (normal functions) to the "frequency basis" (consisting of a family of orthonormal functions).

Here is the chapter on Fourier transforms from my linear algebra book that goes into more details: https://minireference.com/static/excerpts/fourier_transforma...

As for the math, there really is no other way to convince yourself that sin(x) and sin(2x) are orthogonal with respect to the product int(f,g,[0,2pi]) other than to try it out https://live.sympy.org/?evaluate=integrate(%20sin(x)*sin(2*x... Try also with sin(3x) etc. and cos(n*x) etc.

> As for the math, there really is no other way to convince yourself that sin(x) and sin(2x) are orthogonal with respect to the product int(f,g,[0,2pi]) other than to try it out https://live.sympy.org/?evaluate=integrate(%20sin(x)*sin(2*x.... Try also with sin(3x) etc. and cos(n*x) etc.

I disagree with that. It's pretty easy to prove it in general by calculating \int_0^{2\pi} sin(mx)sin(nx) dx etc. for m ≠ n.

I would count an analytic solution as in the "trying out" category (actually the best kind of trying out!).

The "no other way..." was referring to me not having an intuitive explanation to offer about why an sin(x) and sin(2x) are orthogonal.

Some quite careful math for Fourier series is in Rudin, Principles of Mathematical Analysis. Fourier series applies to a function on the whole real line that is periodic, that is, repeats exactly once each some number of seconds. For the math, need only one period so in effect throw away the rest of the function and, indeed, really need the function defined only on the interval of some one period.

For some intuition, consider music, especially on a violin. Fourier series applies to a periodic function (wave), and represents the whole wave as sine waves that fit the one period exactly. So, get sine waves at frequency 1, 2, ... that of the period. In music, these waves are called overtones.

Playing with a violin, the overtones are fully real and even important! E.g., get a tuning fork and tune the A string (second from the right as the violinist sees them) to 440 cycles per second (440 Hertz, 440 Hz). Then the D string, the next to the left, is supposed to have frequency 2/3rds that of the A string. So, bow the two strings together and listen for the pitch 880 Hz, that is, 3 times the desired frequency of the D string and twice that of the A string. So are listening to the second overtone of the D string and the first overtone of the A string; are hearing the third Fourier series term of the D string and the second Fourier series term of the A string. Adjust the tuning peg of the D string until don't hear beats. If the D string is at, say, 881 Hz, then will get 1 beat a second -- so this is an accurate method of tuning. Similarly for tuning the E string from the A string and the G string from the D string -- on a violin, the frequencies of adjacent strings are in the ratio of 3:2, that is, a perfect fifth. That's how violinists tune their violin -- which is needed often since violins are just wood and glue and less stable than, say, the cast iron frame of a piano.

For one more, hold a finger lightly against a string at 1/2 the length of the string and hear a note one octave, twice the frequency, higher. That's often done in the music, e.g., playing harmonics. And it's a good way to get the left hand where it belongs at the start of the famous Bach Preludio in E-major that starts on the E half way up the E string. Lightly touch one third of the way up the string and get three times the fundamental frequency, sometimes done in music to give a special tone color. Net, Fourier series, harmonics, and overtones are real everyday for violinists.

E.g., on a piano, hold down a key and then play and release the key one octave lower and notice that the strings of the key held down still vibrate. The key vibrating was stimulated by the first overtone of the key struck and released.

The Fourier integral applies to functions on the whole real line. Very careful math is in Rudin, Real and Complex Analysis.

Yes, Fourier series and integrals can be looked at as all about perpendicular projections of rank 1 as emphasized in Halmos, Finite Dimensional Vector Spaces, written in 1942 when Halmos was an assistant to John von Neumann at the Institute for Advanced Study. That Halmos book is a finite dimensional (linear algebra) introduction to Hilbert space apparently at least partly due to von Neumann. So, right, Fourier theory can be done in Hilbert space.

Fourier integrals and series are very close both intuitively and mathematically, one often an approximation to the other. E.g., if multiply in one (time, frequency) domain, then convolve in the other (frequency, time) domain. E.g., take a function on the whole real line, call it a box, that is 0 everywhere but 1 on, say, [-1,1]. Well the Fourier transform of the box is a wave, roughly a bell curve, that goes to zero quickly away from 0. A convolution is just a moving weighted average, usually a smoothing. Then given a function on the whole real line, regard that line as the time domain and multiply by the box. Now can regard the r...

Sure but the hard part to understand and accept is that ANY squiggle can be represented by a weighted sum of sinusoids...I mean, that's really an amazing insight, and I don't think it's obvious even after-the-fact. Forget about the details of computing coefficients - just the fact that it works at all remains counter-intuitive to me. (A neat visualization would ask the user to wiggle their mouse, producing a sparkline of some finite length, and then, in real-time, update a frequency domain representation of the motion, perhaps represented as a bunch of connected circles that rotate steadily but at different rates to produce an equivalent graph)
This really depends on the level of math you're expecting for your intuition, but for me it really clicked when I understood it in terms of linear algebra.

A function is like a vector, but instead of having two or three dimensions you have a continuous number of them. Adding functions component-wise works just like adding vectors.

Just like regular vectors, you can choose to represent functions in a different basis. So you choose a family of other functions (call it a basis) that's big enough to represent any other you want. For a lot of reasons [1, 2], a very good choice is the set of complex exponentials g_w(x) = exp(2πiwx), for every real w. It's an infinite family, but that's what you need to deal with the diversity of functions that exist.

So you try to find the linear combination of exponentials that sum to your original function. You need a coefficient for each w, so call it c(w) for simplicity. After fixing the basis, the coefficients really have all the information to describe your function. They're an important object, and we call c(w) the Fourier transform.

How do you find the coefficients? Just project your original function onto a particular exp(2πiwx), that is, take the inner product. Usually the inner product is the sum of the products of coefficients. Since functions are continuously-valued, you use an integral instead of a sum. This is your formula for the Fourier transform.

I known there are technical conditions I am glossing over, but this is the intuition of it for me.

[1] There is an intuition for these exponentials. Complex exponentials are periodic functions, so you are decomposing a function in its constituent frequencies. You could also separate the exponential into a sin and cos, and will obtain other common formulas for the Fourier transform.

[2] Exponentials are like "eigenvectors" to the derivative operation (taking the derivative is just multiplying by a constant), so they're really useful in differential equations as well.

What's the difference between the coefficients of the furier basis and the weights of a neural network ? Both are ways to approximates functions, aren't they?
the difference is the basis that is chosen. Fourier use sin and cos as a basis (or equivalently complex exponentials). You can choose other bases and get wavelets, or hermite functions, or any other particular independent functions.

Weights on neural networks don't have to be independent functions.

Independence gives you a set of mathematical guarantees that insure you fully cover the space you're representing. For example that given a 2 dimensional space, X and Y are pointing in different directions. If they pointed in the same direction you could not fully decompose all vectors on the plane into two coefficients of X and Y.

I had a professor describe a FT as a "dot product of a function against the real signal space". Thus a FT is valued higher at frequencies where the input signal is more "similar" or "in line" with that frequency. Conversely, the FT is zero where there are none of those frequencies in the input signal.

If this helps, then it can also help with understanding other projections such as the Laplace transform (a dot project against the complex signal space).

While this analogy has helped me, I still have no clue why real valued signals result in an even FT.

edit: grammar

There are two types of Fourier magic.

1. The magical orthogonal basis functions: complex sinusoids. Shifting of a time signal just multiplies the Fourier counterpart by a new phase (relative to its represented frequency). Thus transforming to the Fourier basis enables an alternate method of implementing a lot of linear operations (like convolution, i.e. filtering).

2. The magic of the fast implementation of the Discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) as the Fast Fourier Transform (FFT) makes the above alternate method faster. It can be most easily understood by a programmer as a clever reuse of intermediate results from inner loops. The FFT is O(N log N), a direct DFT transform would be O(N^2)

A mathy demonstration of this at https://sourceforge.net/projects/kissfft/

Ok, my time

If you see any signal, it can be represented as a value at each time, x(0) = 1, x(1) = 2 .. x(100) = 5 etc. We can visualize them as you shouting 1 at time 0, 2 at time 1 and 5 at time 100. Alternatively we can also do the same with a larger number of persons.

Representation using dirac delta

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Lets say that you have 100 persons at your disposal. You ask first person to shout 1 at time 0, second person to shout 2 at time 1 and person to shout 5 at time 100. Other times they will be silent. So with these 100 people you can represent the signal X. We call each of these person as bases. Mathematically they are delta functions of time, ie they get activated only at their specified time. Other times they are silent, ie 0. The advantage of this representation is that you have fine control on the signal. If you want to modify value at time=5, you can just inform the 5th guy.

Introduction to bases

--------------------------

Dirac delta is not the only bases. You can ask multiple guys to shout at multiple times. They can even tell negative numbers. All you have to ensure is that they add up to the value of X. The guys should be able tell any number that can come as a part of X. This we name the property "SPAN".

Instead of 100 guys, we can have 200 guys too, ie 2 guys for each time and they tell half of the original value. However, this is wasteful since you have to pay for extra guys with no use. Hence we say that the bases should be orthogonal, ie they should not have correlation with others in the group. So as we have uncorrelated and spanning guys, we can represent any signal using them.

Fourier transform

--------------------------

In case of Fourier transform, each guy will shout according to a sinusoidal wave. Lets say sine wave. ie guy 1 at time 0 will tell the value of sine(f0 t). Second guy will shout value of sine(f1t) and so on. The f0, f1 etc are the frequencies for each guy. Now it comes out that these guys will be orthogonal to each other, and they can span all the signals. Thus we have Fourier transform. Hence instead of representing signal as value at each step, we can represent it as value at each frequency.

Why Fourier transform

-------------------------

We have seen that as long as bases span and and are orthogonal, they can define a transformation. But why is Fourier transform so famous. This comes from the systems we use. The most common systems we use are LTI(Linear time invariant) systems. A property of the said system is that they work on sinusoidal waves. Ie if a sinusoidal wave of frequency f is passed through an LTI system, all it can do is to multiply with a scalar. Any other wave will have a more complex effect. Hence if we can represent signals as a sum of sinusoids, we can represent our system as just a amplifier at each frequency. This makes whole of system analysis into a set of linear equations which we are good at solving. So we love Fourier transform

Systems == electrical + electronic systems
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The intuition of Fourier Transforms is that any continuous, repeating waveform can be recreated by the addition of harmonics of a sine waveform eg a square wave, IIRC, is the addition of the odd harmonics.

The cool thing about this insight is that the converse is true. You can disaggregate any waveform into its additive harmonics. This means you can jam multiple signals into a single channel (eg a fibre optic cable) and then apply a fourier transform at the other end to "untangle" them.

I find most explanations of the Equivalence Principle that lies at the foundation of General Relativity to be very lax.

To wit, the idea is that you cannot distinguish whether you are in an accelerated frame or in a gravitational field; alternatively stated, if you’re floating around in an elevator you don’t know whether you’re freefalling to your doom or in deep sideral space far from any gravitational source (though of course, since you’re in an elevator car and apparently freefalling... I think we’d all agree on what’s most likely, but I digress).

Anyway, what irks me that this is most definitely not true at the “thought experiment” level of theoretical thinking: if you had two baseballs with you in that freefalling lift, you could suspend them in front of you. If you were in deep space, they’d stay equidistant; if you were freefalling down a shaft, you’d see them move closer because of tidal effects dictated by the fact that they’re each falling towards the earth’s centre of gravity, and therefore at (very slightly) different angles.

Of course, they’d be moving slightly toward each other in both cases (because they attract gravitationally) but the tidal effect presents is additional and present in only one scenario, allowing one to (theoretically) distinguish, apparently violating the bedrock Equivalence Principle.

I never see this point raised anywhere and I find it quite distressing, because I’m sure there’s a very simple explanation and that General Relativity is sound under such trivial constructions, but I haven’t been able to find a decent explanation.

I'm gonna assume that for purposes of the thought experiment you're supposed to envision a point-shaped elevator, not one where you can place two baseballs next to each other.
I think the elevator scenario is imagining that the earth is a point source, and you are neglecting the (much smaller) gravitational forces for the sake of illustrating a more general phenomenon.
You're right that this is glossed over in popular explanations, but the point you make is exactly the starting point for all formal courses and textbooks.

The first part of the argument is that for single point particles falling, the effect of gravity is the same for all particles. This suggests that we should model gravity as something intrinsic to spacetime itself, rather than as a field living on top of spacetime, which could couple to different particles with different strengths.

The second part of the argument, which is what you point out, is that gravity can have nontrivial tidal effects. (This had better be true, because if all gravitational effects were just equivalent to a trivial uniform acceleration, then it would be so boring that we wouldn't need a theory of gravity at all!) This suggests that whatever property of spacetime we use to model gravity, it should reduce in the Newtonian limit to something that looks like a tidal effect, i.e. a gradient of the Newtonian gravitational field. That leads directly to the idea of describing gravity as the curvature of spacetime.

So both parts of the argument give important information (both historically and pedagogically). Both parts are typically presented in good courses, but only the first half makes it to the popular explanations, probably out of simplification.

> it should reduce in the Newtonian limit to something that looks like a tidal effect, i.e. a gradient of the Newtonian gravitational field.

Can you please explain to me how you went from"looks like a tidal effect in the Newtonian limit" to "a gradient of the Newtonian Graviational field"?

"Tidal effects" are defined in terms of having different gravitational fields in one place than another (i.e. the tidal bulge near to the moon occurs because the moon's field is stronger there).
That's not quite true, as illustrated by the tidal bulge opposite the moon.

Tidal forces occur much more due to the difference in the direction of gravity than due to the difference in magnitude.

> you’d see them move closer because of tidal effects dictated by the fact that they’re each falling towards the earth’s centre of gravity, and therefore at (very slightly) different angles.

This point isn't raised anywhere because it's mostly a pedantic point that has nothing to do with the thought experiment. You shouldn't try and decompose thought experiments literally, otherwise you'll get caught up in unimportant details like this. Just assume the elevator is close enough to the earth such that the field lines are effectively parallel, or better yet, just pretend the elevator is in an infinite plate field.

But then again, realizing this problem with the thought experiment is a mark of a sophisticated student. This was the last question on my physics exam in 1991, and I still regret that I went with the simple explanation. I wonder whether the prof was looking for the students who really got it.
The elevator car is a thought experiment that draws attention to the equivalence in sensation of acceleration on one hand, and being in a uniform gravitational field on the other hand. As you correctly point out, this particular thought experiment breaks down when you consider that all of the gravitational fields that we are accustomed to are non-uniform, and have apparent tidal forces.

The real principle of relativity is a bit more subtle (sometimes called the strong principle): that the effects of gravity can be explained entirely at the level of local geometry, without any need for non-local interaction from the distant body that is generating the gravitational field. To describe the geometry of non-uniform fields, we need more sophisticated mathematical machinery than what is implied by the elevator car thought experiment, but nonetheless, the elevator example is a useful launching point for that type of inquiry.

Yeah the problem is that that the equivalence principle is a _local_ property that cannot really be expressed precisely in standard English.

Clearly it will fail given a big enough lift to experiment in, since a big enough lift would essentially include whatever object is creating that gravitational pull (or enough to conclude its existence from other phenomena). However these effects are nonlocal, you need two different points of reference for them to work (like your two baseballs). In fact most Tidal forces are almost by definition nonlocal.

The precise definition involves describing curved spacetime and geodesics, but that one is really hard to visualize as a thought experiment. The thought experiment does offer insight though, as it is possible to imagine that, absent significant local variations in gravity, you cannot distinguish between free-fall and a (classical) inertial frame of reference without gravity. This insight provides the missing link that allows you to combine gravity with the laws of special relativity and therefore electromechanics, including the way light bends around heavy objects, which provided one of the first confirmations of this theory.

This was covered on PBS Space Time in an early episode on GR and talked about later as well.
The assumption is the acceleration and the gravitation are in the same direction and the same magnitude. The point is that given these two, it's impossible to distinguish the two.

If you think it's sneaky to "implicitly" assume they're in the same direction, I would point out that this is no different from assuming they have the same magnitude. It would be kinda dumb to say "well this 1m/s^2 acceleration can't possibly be equivalent to gravity because gravity is 9.8m/s^2, so the statement is obviously wrong and they're trying to trick me!!"... same thing for direction.

I have two quite bright nieces. When I was explaining the equivalence principle to them, right away they saw that in the gravitational field of the earth there would be tidal effects and in free space with just acceleration, none.

I had to apologize and say that the explanation was over simplified and really it would work, say, only for some creatures living exactly on the floor of the elevator.

One of the two, at a challenging high school, made Valedictorian (surprise to her parents who didn't know she had long been first in her class) then in college PBK, got her law degree at Harvard, started at Cravath-Swain, went for an MD, and now is practicing medicine. Bright niece.

Add a clock on each baseball.

Turn "clock + baseball" into a light of increasing brightness.

That's what nature sees.

It's easier to speed up your clock so you get an extra second, move, and slow down your clock than just move.

Einstein did not differ between a mass's gravity and "wanting to move in a straight line unless acted on by another force."

Before Einstein, Planck proved an object needs energy before glowing the next color, from red to orange for instance. Einstein came along and said you have a start, you have an end, you have a particle.

The photoelectric effect requires photons of a minimal wavelength to produce a voltage in material. The photon sees the material all at once. No matter how many photons of a lesser energy you fire, no electricity until you hit that wavelength.

Not differing between gravity and inertia allows Einstein to talk in terms of photons instead of clocks changing.

Today our questions involve reality and locality. Do we transfer heat into everything at once? Or does heat go one way, and we can't trace it without smudging the trail.

--- --- --- --- --- --- --- --- ---

So my view of gravity is "something already exists". We got to account for it. If we want to generate something from nothing, we have to convince everything out there.

What stumps me:

Can we convince everything out there something exists? If so doesn't it just pop into existence if everything agrees something should exist there? What happens when we do? Does whatever pop into existence give us an accurate picture of everything out there?

If so, does everything that's out there just part of the material here? Galaxies precipitate in existence if we leave the Hubble on too long. They are only real when humans from Earth touch down on them.

I wanted to thank everybody who took the time to explain this. Thank you.
To me, the layperson, the idea that you cannot distinguish whether you are in an accelerated frame or in a gravitational field seems wrong due to a very simple fact.

The force that would be exerted from acceleration versus gravity is different. The force you we think of as gravity comes from a center point that changes with your position while acceleration comes from a uniform direction without regard to your position.

You're thinking of a specific gravity scenario versus a specific acceleration scenario. But the equivalence is true, it was one of the things shown by Einstein.
Automatic differentiation. It's useful to so much computational work, but most people only get a cursory introduction to the topic (a rough intro to the minimum they need to know), whereas really understanding it seems to open up a lot of research.
Oh man, I read a super cool article about that about a year ago. It provided an algorithm for automatic differentiation using an imaginary number such that it times itself equaled 0, but wasn't equal to zero itself. I'll try to find the link.

I don't know if this was it, but an explanation nonetheless https://medium.com/@omaraflak/automatic-differentiation-4d26...