but that rule doesn’t hold in the alternative arithmetic.
Also, ‘even’ and ‘odd’ are completely different from the traditional even and odd.
Fo example, for any even ‘n’, we have
‘n’ ÷ ‘2’ = n - 2
so division by two of an ‘even’ ‘number’ always keeps the number ‘even’, and for starting point ‘4’, we get an infinite sequence ‘2’, ‘0’, ‘-2’, etc. (also a direct counterexample to the claim that you always end up at ‘1’)
Ah ok thanks for the corrections, so I need to evaluate how my 2D (projected) arithmentic works for the proof to work out. Thank you so much for taking my work seriously.
The second one is inscrutable to me, but seems to depend on the existence of the inverse of a single iteration of the Collatz sequence. That inverse doesn’t exist. An easy counterexample is that both 1 and 8 in a single step produce 4.
In general, for any odd n, both n and 6n+2 in a single step lead to 3n+1.
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[ 2.9 ms ] story [ 34.2 ms ] thread(‘3’ + X) + ‘√4’ = (X + ‘3’) + ‘√4’
but that rule doesn’t hold in the alternative arithmetic.
Also, ‘even’ and ‘odd’ are completely different from the traditional even and odd.
Fo example, for any even ‘n’, we have
so division by two of an ‘even’ ‘number’ always keeps the number ‘even’, and for starting point ‘4’, we get an infinite sequence ‘2’, ‘0’, ‘-2’, etc. (also a direct counterexample to the claim that you always end up at ‘1’)In general, for any odd n, both n and 6n+2 in a single step lead to 3n+1.
I can inverse f(x)=f(x+1) easily as g(x)=f(x)-1 since g(f(x)) = x do you understand my functional inversion approach now better?