Maths Where Pythagorean Triples Don't Exist
Are there maths where the Pythagorean triples don’t exist?
I ask because of the following:
Let A,B,C, and K be elements of the Natural Numbers
1.∃K(K≤1)∧∃A,B,C(A^K+B^K=C^K )
2.∃A,B,C(A^K+B^K=C^K )∧∃K(K≤1)
3.∃A,B,C(A^K+B^K=C^K )→∃K(K≤1)
4.∀K(K>1)→∀A,B,C(A^K+B^K≠C^K )
Premise 1 is true because at K equal to 1 I can find natural numbers A,B, and C such that A+B=C. Premise 2 is true because of the commutative property. Premise 3 is true because of Premise 2 and Premise 1. Which would mean Premise 4 is true since it is the contrapositive of Premise 3. Yet this seems wrong though since the Pythagorean Triples exist. So it is either the case that the reasoning is fallacious, or at least one premise is wrong, or there are maths where the Pythagorean triples don’t exist.
9 comments
[ 3.2 ms ] story [ 33.8 ms ] threadThere are other problems here, but that's the most glaring one.
K=2 doesn't make the interior true for either, so choosing it doesn't tell us whether #3 and #4 are true or false.
However, if we choose K=1 then we prove #3 and #4 are true.
For example, integers modulo 3: the square of both 1 and 2 is 1, so the sum of two nonzero squares is always 1 + 1 = 2, which is not a square.
Looking for infinite number sets without Pythagorean triples should be fun.
If you are interested in other equations, don't call them the same way; and more importantly, while generalizing to other exponents and sums of more than two numbers is reasonable, allowing 0 makes the problem trivial because all powers of 0 are 0 and the sum of any number of zeros is 0.
I didn’t do that. I implicitly alluded to Fermat’s last theorem, expecting readers to pick that up.
> because allowing 0 makes the problem trivial because all powers of 0 are 0
The example I gave isn’t trivial. The trivial ones are
Also, nitpicking, not all powers of 0 are 0. The convention is that 0⁰ = 1 (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zero_to_the_power_of_zero)