The irony is that smartphone keyboards seem to randomly replace correct "it's"s with incorrect "it's"s, so it actually takes more work to appear lazy by going back and correcting them.
This is fantastic. I never noticed that's exactly how I interpret the total absence of appropriate punctuation. Bonus points if you ignore capitalization as well.
I saw some guide to Zoomer communication recently which talked about how ... is perceived as "aggressive", which blew my mind. Better to just stick to lowercase letters. (Autocorrect makes this a pain though - I had to go back and fix the capitalization of "is" in the last sentence.)
> Now we just need an agency to safeguard us against misusing "less" when "fewer" would be correct
Genuinely curious, is this for pedantry, or does the word choice matter? Since the opposite of both is "more", why is there a need for a distinction in one direction and not the other?
Less instead of fewer sort of bugs me. But I've even seen less used in The Economist when I would have thought fewer was more correct so I think the answer is it's pedantry at this point. (To be clear, pedantry in the sense that less can be (usually?) substituted for fewer but not the other way around.)
The underlying distinction is about mass versus countable nouns.
You can't refer to a sheet of paper as "a paper" (that refers to something else - a completed document). And you can't call a piece of furniture "a furniture", nor can you ask for "a scissors". They are mass nouns, inherently plural, referring to an abstract, indefinite amount of something. (Or in English, something coming in pairs, like scissors.) To refer to a specific instance, you need to use a determiner like "a piece of paper".
Or a head of cattle. You can't have two cattles. You have two head of cattle. Cattle come in a herd with an ambiguous number of them Other nouns are count nouns, and can be directly counted; they're definitive. A cat, two cats, four cats. Count nouns go with "fewer". Mass nouns go with "less". Over-educated writers might make a distinction here where "fewer cattle" is visualizing a few individuals, while "less cattle" is visualizing a smaller herd. I do think that's overly pedantic. Very few people make that distinction cleanly.
Some languages have no concept of count nouns at all, all nouns are mass nouns. Some languages have no concept of mass nouns, and all nouns are count nouns. Or nearly so. English has and uses both. Some cases are sort of blurry or unclear. "Six rains" = it has rained six times. That's maybe grammatical, but it's very unnatural in English. We do not feel we can count the times it rains, that way. It has to qualify a word that can be counted, like "times" - a pattern so common we get abbreviated counter words like "once" and "twice". Most languages have a touch of both patterns. Even in Chinese, which supposedly has no count nouns, there a few places when you do just count things directly.
So, no, it's not necessary. But if your language does make the distinction, it's very common for agreement patterns to show up based around that distinction. Akin to how French adjectives agree with their noun in number and gender.
> Even in Chinese, which supposedly has no count nouns, there a few places when you do just count things directly.
Are those things nouns? Days, for example, must be counted directly, except that the grammar is very clear that 天 is not a noun at all.
月 can be used with or without a measure word, but the obvious analysis would be that it is a noun if used with a measure word and not if counted directly, much like 人.
(Preemptive counterargument: is "right" a noun or an adjective?)
Because scissors is plural, which does not have an indefinite article. You can ask for scissors, like you can ask for documents. (And you cannot ask for a documents, only for a document.)
One nitpick: Grammatically, mass nouns are not (necessarily) plural. You’d say “Paper is made from wood.”, not “Paper are made from wood.” (Of course, the pair words like scissors are different, i.e. “My scissors are in my backpack.” (I also seem to recall that there are non-pair mass nouns that only exist in plural form, but I cannot think of any examples.)
You said in your post that mass nouns are “inherently plural”, which grammatically they are not. I suppose you were referring to the meanings of those words, though.
In my head the opposite of fewer (“more”) and the opposite of less (“more”) feel like different words that happen to be homonyms.
I haven’t looked it up but this is unlikely to have been the etymological history — if there ever even were two different words at all, one likely crowded the other out. But anyway, that’s how my brain works.
Sadly taken at a time when phones with cameras were fairly new (with poor resolution), and taking photos in public spaces was largely considered uncouth (imagine!)
Not apostrophe-related, but you just reminded me of a sign I kept seeing at my local hospital a while back. It said (and I took a picture of it, because it bugged me so much):
NO PETS
No Dogs or Pets
Trained Guide Dogs or Service Animals Welcome
No dogs or pets are allowed.
When I read this, I imagine a guy with thick glasses and a white lab coat feeding these rules into a wall-sized 1950s computer and smoke coming out.
Feels like the same kind of language I use when trying to get ChatGPT to stop doing the thing. Just repeat my negative commands in various, slightly different wordings and hope one of them sticks
> But when I do try to explain why "less" and "fewer" are not interchangeable, I usually just say, "Do you want fewer syrup on your pancakes?"
This feels like a strawman: As evidenced by the fact that everyone would agree your example sentence is ungrammatical, clearly "less" and "fewer" are not strictly interchangeable, either prescriptively or descriptively.
I guess what I'm trying to say is that I don't see how your example is relevant to the cases where people do in fact use "less" to mean "fewer" (or vice versa).
The problem with the example is: Some has used less where you would have preferred fewer. You answer with an example, where fewer is used but only less is generally considered grammatical. (In other words, the replacement goes in the opposite direction.) But it is perfectly consistent to say that fewer is restricted to countable nouns while less can be used universally.
Consistent with how language works. Words have partial overlaps and “subset” relations all the time.
In the case of less and fewer, there isn’t even really a problem, because there are very few cases where using less when fewer would (also) be appropriate leads to confusion. (Otherwise the same distinction would surely also exist for more.)
I’m afraid, the only real “problem” is that for people who are accustomed to the distinction, using the “wrong” one gives a nails-on-chalkboard sensation.
> While "grammar nerds" are psyched about Weird Al's new "Word Crimes" video, many linguists are shaking their heads and feeling a little hopeless about what the public enthusiasm about it represents: a society where largely trivial, largely arbitrary standards of linguistic correctness are heavily privileged, and people feel justified in degrading and attacking those who don't do things the "correct" way.
I know who I'm trusting to speak confidently about language usage.
I fully agree. And yet you see people (above in this thread, even) who defend illiteracy with the old "you're just a grammar nazi; language is a 'living entity'" trope.
Transition is an odd one to get hung up on. We may not illumination but we do vacation, function, question, proposition, requisition, audition, reposition, and many other words of similar etymology.
I disagree that to transit is the right verb form of transition in general. Transit (to my ear) is pretty much limited to a change of place, usually even through something (you might “transit a stretch of wood”, to steal Merriam-Webster’s example). Transition is more generally about a state of change.
By the same token, you could still reject to question because the verb to quest exists.
Well, that's... like... your opinion, man. But not supported by etymology.
"Quest" and "question" are also not a valid comparison, because the two forms aren't even clearly the same word. For example, if someone goes on a quest through the jungle, you don't say "his question through the jungle was interrupted by a phone call from home." Or, "he questioned from one end of the jungle to the other."
But quest and question have the same etymology, just like transit and transition. Having the same etymology clearly does not mean that the words cannot diverge in meaning. And if you looked up transit and transition in a dictionary, you’d find that they’re considered distinct in meaning, much along the lines of what I wrote.
Merriam-Webster, OED, Wiktionary. (If you have a preferred dictionary not on the list, I’m sure you can look there yourself.) All of them have some variant of “to pass through” as the primary meaning of to transit and “to change from one state, place, etc. to another” as the meaning of to transition.
And I didn’t claim that quest and question had a similar relation as transit and transition in meaning, only that in both cases, the two words have the same etymological root. I mentioned this in reference to your claim that my opinion was not supported by etymology. It doesn’t have to be, because etymology doesn’t dictate the current meaning of a word, it can just try to explain it.
Vacate, query (or inquire), propose, require, audit, (re)posit. Idk about function but the word might be out there. The thing is that all of these have slightly shifted meanings when denominalized in English. To proposition someone isn’t just to propose something. And for a liquid to transition into vapor isn’t for it to transit.
Edit: We don’t have a straight verb but we do have fungible. So we could try to bring funge into the mix as the “proper” verb.
I think it has merit since it's easier to remember and is more consistent with other verbs. There is no (good) reason for only a few verbs being so different.
There's a donut shop near me named Loi's Donuts. Not Lois's or Lois'. Yes, the owner's name is Lois, not Loi. I guess the apostrophe just means, Hey, there's an "S" coming up!
I have an almost, but not quite, completely unrelated anecdote about this.
I got on the internet in the early 2000s as a teenager, and would often be in various online chatrooms. Tricking people into visiting "shock sites" (most famously goatse.cx) seemed to be a common habit of certain denizens of these communities, either to people they didn't like or just because they thought it was funny.
Somehow I managed to avoid ever falling victim to this, but there was one exception I recall, in which I was linked to a website purporting to be website of the "Apostrophe Protection Society". After only a moment some kind of JavaScript kicked in to instead change the contents of the page to some goatse.cx-style shock image which I don't recall. In other words,
the "Apostrophe Protection Society" page just existed as a kind of bait-and-switch cover.
I quickly closed the page, and ironically what I ended up remembering is not anything about the shock image but the notion of the "Apostrophe Protection Society". I think at the time I assumed that the notion of the "Apostrophe Protection Society" was intended to be part of the joke - that nobody would ever actually make such an organisation.
I never bumped into that site again, but for heaven knows why (my memory is scary sometimes) I still remember the existence of this site pretending to be about an "Apostrophe Protection Society" (or some similar title).
So, TIL it actually is real - and actually a legitimate organisation. Presumably whoever made the above website must have picked the website at random and copied its contents. Well, I hope this random anecdote about what the web used to be like is of interest to someone...
No! speaking of lost punctuation marks, even more humorously goatse.cx
it's pronounced "goatsex". get it? get the leet joke? the joke doesn't work if you misinterpret the semantic versioning "point" as a full stop. full stop.
First sentence from Wikipedia: "goatse.cx, often spelled without the .cx top-level domain as Goatse, was an internet domain that originally housed an Internet shock site."
The omission rules are what I see bungled most these days, as well as typographical things like the wrong version of the smart apostrophe appearing in the wrong place.
Errors like "They want to outlaw Christian's" are easily avoidable; just stay away from Facebook comments.
When the name ends in an "s", you either add an apostrophe and "s" or just an apostrophe.
- James's pen or James' pen
- Mr Jones's van or Mr Jones' van
Who accepts the first style? I thought this was a non-negotiable error.
Both AP (usually--unless the following word starts with an s) and Chicago prefer s-apostrophe-s for singular nouns. Though, on their website, Chicago seems fairly ambivalent about it. The bottom line is that a copyeditor may correct you but it's pretty far away from grammatical faux pas territory. (Personally I go with just s-apostrophe.)
I only accept the first style, because I pronounce it "Jameses pen", not "James pen". If there are multiple choices and one more closely resembles the spoken language, I don't see any reason to save a written letter. Otherwise you have "James' pen" being pronounced "Jameses pen", but "the voters' choice" for some reason is not pronounced "the voterses choice". You end up with one specific circumstance where an apostrophe is actually pronounced, and I really don't like that.
As I had read that it was, I went searching for more authority and it looks like it was and it wasn't as best I can try to figure out from this article
AP (usually), Chicago, and The Economist style guides all specify the first use for singular nouns--so it does seem to be officially preferred in both US and British English. Which I did not actually know.
I thought about this for a bit a month or two back. I decided that I was consistent about my spelling matching my pronunciation (though a -s’ one still entails a very subtle adjustment of the final phoneme compared to its -s origin), but I couldn’t find any consistent rule I was following about the pronunciation. Number of syllables was readily falsified; concluding phoneme (/s/ like Chris or /z/ like James) was readily falsified; I didn’t delve far enough into the concluding syllable (e.g. “Jesus’” already ends in /zəz/, ending in /zəzəz/ just makes me think of Sméagol and his fisheses), so there may still be a pattern, but for now I think it may just be irregular.
Pronunciation-dependent spelling is not novel in English: “a” and “an” are the same word, but the choice depends on the succeeding phoneme. The King James Version of the Bible uses the phrase “an horse for an hundred pieces of silver”, showing that the dominant accent at the time used a silent h in both words: “an ’orse for an ’undred pieces of silver”. I contemplated the matter a few years ago and decided that “a horse for a hundred pieces of silver” was a more reasonable reading of the phrase in Australian English (though most will diligently read the clumsy “an horse, &c.”).
This is one of the subtleties across accents. An American might write “an herb” because they’ll pronounce it “an ’erb”, whereas an Australian would write “a herb” because we sound the h.
The variations of "an h-" are one of my favorite things to stumble on, because it's one of the few times that the written word tells you what kind of accent the writer has.
I like to interpret these kinds of names as though the word was a plural noun. Kings Cross: monarchs have to get to the other side of the road just like the rest of us. Herons Court: a description of avian mating behaviour.
I don't think St Marys Terrace really works though.
I found it interesting to learn that possessive apostrophes are more or less an English language only thing. Possessive word endings ("Tomes pen") used to be a thing, but I guess got abbreviated so much (Tom's pen) they no longer exist.
In eats, shoots and leaves I recall the claim being made that apostrophes can be used for plurality with borrowed words. A particular example would thus be the "potato". Therefore, a so-called grocer's apostrophe to pluralise potato would be ok, while to pluralise turnip it would not.
Similarly it was considered appropriate for pluralising numbers and days of the week. "There are fifty-two Wednesday's in a normal year." However, if the contraction argument were correct then "Tomes Pen" -> "Tom's Pen" could also allow "Potatoes" -> "Potato's"
A professor of mine used to say that the original form (don't know what time period; he never explained that) was "Tom, his pen", so therefore the apostrophe still indicates elided characters. I don't know whether his example is correct, or yours, or both, but they're clearly pointing in the same direction.
Since English is a Germanic language, it seems more likely to me that the possessive ‘s’ is a carryover from the German genitive case. Pure speculation, but perhaps the apostrophe was added as case endings disappeared from English (except for the rare exceptions like who/whom)
Note that it's also spilling over into German, frequently called "Deppenapostroph" by people with a similar, but less polite view as those behind the article. So Germans absolutely do assume that it is the same thing, to the point where many seem to feel that it would be more correct to write it like the English do.
Thank you! I didn't take the time to google anything this morning.
However, from that article:
>Some people thought that the ’s at the end of a word indicating possession was simply a stand-in for “his,” and so “the king’s book” would be the shortened version of “the king his book.” This theory is no longer popular. Instead, it seems likely that the genitive apostrophe is an illustration of our language’s older, highly inflectional state.
So... Maybe. But I don't think it's "mainly" my professor's!
Which makes me sad, because he was a man of good cheer, and erudition, who so enjoyed having his ideas challenged by interesting new ones. I would have enjoyed going down this particular linguistic / orthographic rabbit hole with him. He passed away last year, and this conversation reminded me how much I miss him.
He had a good innings, though! 1930 - 2022. What a wonderful, interesting life.
In the UK a misplaced apostrophe (in a plural or in possessive its) is called a "greengrocers' apostrophe", presumably due to folks in that trade being particularly susceptible to errors in their signs, in turn partially due to the slightly unusual nature of the nouns they are pluralising; "bananas" is slightly teasing you to stick one in, but "mangos" more so as just looks like a Greek island otherwise, unless you opt for the -oes form.
Ha. That makes sense, I wonder why or how that became a thing?
It's the same case in the US -- you see it most in locally owned mom-and-pop style stores, especially ones that have been around for a while.
It genuinely makes me wonder if it's out of ignorance, or if it's intentionally keeping a kind of old-school charm. "If apostrophes were good enough for my grandfather, they're good enough for me!"
Of course, there's also a store local to me that has "&" on its big sign instead of "&", so I don't want to read in too much intention. (And you can tell it's not the kind of business that can afford to have a replacement sign made.)
> If you’re looking for guidance on the correct use of apostrophes, …
> It's free, so why not join today!
> Do please have a browse and see if there’s anything you want to purchase.
I’m genuinely disappointed at this inconsistency: the first and third use curly quotes, the second uses straight quotes. They should pick one style (which, for such an organisation, should I think fairly clearly be the curly, unless they go bizarre and decide that U+0027 APOSTROPHE’s name is enough to warrant protecting it despite its inferiority to U+2019 RIGHT SINGLE QUOTATION MARK) and stick with it assiduously.
They’ve also got a pair of double quotes on the quotation at the end, and they’re straight.
I have to object to the recommendation to fix an error that results in a "corrected" form that reads
> 1000s of bargains here!
The problem with a sentence that says "1000's" isn't just the presence of the apostrophe. "1000" is not a substitute for the word "thousand". It means "one thousand". "1000s" therefore is a nonsense construction, apostrophe or not, unless you're talking about years or other number ranges. The same goes for "millions", etc, as well as "hundreds". (This doesn't apply to 10; "10s of thousands" is acceptable and correct.)
The "use" page is missing several details, some important:
* 1 The non-ASCII apostrophe is always ’, so programs that automatically insert smart quotes do the wrong thing for apostrophes at the start of a word. Some better examples IMHO: ’tis (it is), ’nuff (enough), ’cause (because), ’em (them), ’fraid (afraid), ’n’ (and),
* 2 The "name ends with s" rule also applies to names ending with "x".
* 3 is arguably just a special case of 2 (e.g. we can say "a holiday of two weeks"), but note that this is very similar to the attributive use (7) which never† uses the plural or an apostrophe but does use a hyphen (a two-week holiday).
* 5 There are, in fact, grammatically-valid uses of "its’", when "it" is a noun rather than a pronoun. A non-derogatory example, in some variants of tag (the children's game), the its’ advantage increases over time.
* 6 Whether apostrophes are used for plurals of non-words is a matter of style, not correctness.
* 7, † Some apparent exceptions are due to words that are actually collective instead of plural for the particular use case. For example, "arms industry" is like "clothes industry". More often, people use errors and omit the required apostrophe. "farmers market" is an abomination.
Technically, ’ isn't an apostrophe at all, but a right single quotation mark. I honestly thought this post was going to finally be some validation of my annoyance at everyone using the wrong Unicode character just because font makers make the apostrophe more “ugly”.
Absolutely not, the Unicode Standard explicitly states that U+2019 (’) RIGHT SINGLE QUOTATION MARK “is the preferred character to use for apostrophe”. You can see this in the code chart at https://www.unicode.org/charts/PDF/U2000.pdf and it is restated in section “Apostrophes”, 6.2 General Punctuation.
The "name ends with s" rule is surprisingly permissive -- I'm surprised an organization that claims to work to protect the apostrophe would allow one to be stripped of its due support 's'. And without an analogous rule for non-name nouns ending in 's', it's just needlessly inconsistent.
(1) is even more annoying in German where we use single quotes ‚like this‘ (i.e. a comma-looking opening quote and the English opening quote as the closing quote). Apostrophes are the same as in English, though.
Unfortunately, (almost?) all smart quote implementations default to replacing ' at the end of a word by a closing quote (even if no opening quote precedes it), so you get tons of apostrophes pointing in the wrong direction (looking like 6 instead of 9).
On the other hand, given the marginal utility of the apostrophe (relative to, say, the comma or the parenthesis) as well as the fact that so many people seem to have a hard time keeping it straight, Im tempted to conclude thats evidence that we should just get rid of it outright.
181 comments
[ 3.1 ms ] story [ 297 ms ] threadI saw some guide to Zoomer communication recently which talked about how ... is perceived as "aggressive", which blew my mind. Better to just stick to lowercase letters. (Autocorrect makes this a pain though - I had to go back and fix the capitalization of "is" in the last sentence.)
It made me want to do violence at the TV.
https://wiki.lspace.org/A._Parker_and_Son%27s
https://www.reddit.com/r/discworld/comments/tyyo47/one_of_my...
Edit: And a TV version, apparently.
I sympathize, but I'm afraid that war's been lost. If I were to send in every example I see, it would be a full time job.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CkZyZFa5qO0
Someone (likely an APS agent) even typed up a list of the grammatical errors made on the sign, and taped it to the bottom of it:
https://i.imgur.com/y5ENADH.jpg
Now we just need an agency to safeguard us against misusing "less" when "fewer" would be correct (like Avril Incandenza in Infinite Jest).
Right, a meter's coin slot takes a quarter's unit of value. :)
There were multiple meters, the intent was to pluralize "meter." Which makes "takes" incorrect (vs "take"). Maybe I should get out more.
Just a poor choice if which words to elide for space. :)
Genuinely curious, is this for pedantry, or does the word choice matter? Since the opposite of both is "more", why is there a need for a distinction in one direction and not the other?
"Fewer" typically refers to countables, "10 items or fewer."
"Less" is used for things that don't have a plural form or are not countable, "there's less water in the pool this morning."
Consider
There are fewer people on the West Coast.
There are many people on the East Coast.
"Many," is not a comparator.
> The opposite of few maybe many
"Maybe" is an adverb. Perhaps you meant "may be?" :)
You can't refer to a sheet of paper as "a paper" (that refers to something else - a completed document). And you can't call a piece of furniture "a furniture", nor can you ask for "a scissors". They are mass nouns, inherently plural, referring to an abstract, indefinite amount of something. (Or in English, something coming in pairs, like scissors.) To refer to a specific instance, you need to use a determiner like "a piece of paper".
Or a head of cattle. You can't have two cattles. You have two head of cattle. Cattle come in a herd with an ambiguous number of them Other nouns are count nouns, and can be directly counted; they're definitive. A cat, two cats, four cats. Count nouns go with "fewer". Mass nouns go with "less". Over-educated writers might make a distinction here where "fewer cattle" is visualizing a few individuals, while "less cattle" is visualizing a smaller herd. I do think that's overly pedantic. Very few people make that distinction cleanly.
Some languages have no concept of count nouns at all, all nouns are mass nouns. Some languages have no concept of mass nouns, and all nouns are count nouns. Or nearly so. English has and uses both. Some cases are sort of blurry or unclear. "Six rains" = it has rained six times. That's maybe grammatical, but it's very unnatural in English. We do not feel we can count the times it rains, that way. It has to qualify a word that can be counted, like "times" - a pattern so common we get abbreviated counter words like "once" and "twice". Most languages have a touch of both patterns. Even in Chinese, which supposedly has no count nouns, there a few places when you do just count things directly.
So, no, it's not necessary. But if your language does make the distinction, it's very common for agreement patterns to show up based around that distinction. Akin to how French adjectives agree with their noun in number and gender.
Are those things nouns? Days, for example, must be counted directly, except that the grammar is very clear that 天 is not a noun at all.
月 can be used with or without a measure word, but the obvious analysis would be that it is a noun if used with a measure word and not if counted directly, much like 人.
(Preemptive counterargument: is "right" a noun or an adjective?)
But you can ask for "the scissors".
Why does that sound OK but the other does not?
(Not debating, genuinely curious.)
Less water, fewer onions.
Edit: not every word ending in "s" is plural. Some of them were just stolen from other languages and ended up with a final "s".
I haven’t looked it up but this is unlikely to have been the etymological history — if there ever even were two different words at all, one likely crowded the other out. But anyway, that’s how my brain works.
Yet we have so so many stupid rich people and many many more brilliant poor people.
https://archive.org/details/Astounding_v47n06_1951-08_MadMax...
But when I do try to explain why "less" and "fewer" are not interchangeable, I usually just say, "Do you want fewer syrup on your pancakes?"
Then there's "transition" as a verb: Do you illumination a room when it's dark?
We can go on and on, but we can't leave this one out: "would of." I always call that out in any comment forum. This just can't be let go.
And now, Weird Al has some words: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8Gv0H-vPoDc
This feels like a strawman: As evidenced by the fact that everyone would agree your example sentence is ungrammatical, clearly "less" and "fewer" are not strictly interchangeable, either prescriptively or descriptively.
I guess what I'm trying to say is that I don't see how your example is relevant to the cases where people do in fact use "less" to mean "fewer" (or vice versa).
In the case of less and fewer, there isn’t even really a problem, because there are very few cases where using less when fewer would (also) be appropriate leads to confusion. (Otherwise the same distinction would surely also exist for more.)
I’m afraid, the only real “problem” is that for people who are accustomed to the distinction, using the “wrong” one gives a nails-on-chalkboard sensation.
A linguist had some words in response[0]
> While "grammar nerds" are psyched about Weird Al's new "Word Crimes" video, many linguists are shaking their heads and feeling a little hopeless about what the public enthusiasm about it represents: a society where largely trivial, largely arbitrary standards of linguistic correctness are heavily privileged, and people feel justified in degrading and attacking those who don't do things the "correct" way.
I know who I'm trusting to speak confidently about language usage.
[0] https://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=13521
Over half of the American population reads below a 6th grade level. We should encourage them to improve at every opportunity.
Therefore the comparison is invalid.
By the same token, you could still reject to question because the verb to quest exists.
"Quest" and "question" are also not a valid comparison, because the two forms aren't even clearly the same word. For example, if someone goes on a quest through the jungle, you don't say "his question through the jungle was interrupted by a phone call from home." Or, "he questioned from one end of the jungle to the other."
And quest/question are not parallel to transit/transition. If you think otherwise, please provide an example.
And I didn’t claim that quest and question had a similar relation as transit and transition in meaning, only that in both cases, the two words have the same etymological root. I mentioned this in reference to your claim that my opinion was not supported by etymology. It doesn’t have to be, because etymology doesn’t dictate the current meaning of a word, it can just try to explain it.
Edit: We don’t have a straight verb but we do have fungible. So we could try to bring funge into the mix as the “proper” verb.
I do like "funge." Let's go for it! I'd be gruntled.
The verbs transit and transition mean different things. The former is the physical movement, the latter is a change of state.
In the process of evaporation, water transitions from liquid to gaseous state. It doesn't *transit from liquid to gas.
The past tense of "write" is not "writed". The past tense of "stand" is not "standed".
I got on the internet in the early 2000s as a teenager, and would often be in various online chatrooms. Tricking people into visiting "shock sites" (most famously goatse.cx) seemed to be a common habit of certain denizens of these communities, either to people they didn't like or just because they thought it was funny.
Somehow I managed to avoid ever falling victim to this, but there was one exception I recall, in which I was linked to a website purporting to be website of the "Apostrophe Protection Society". After only a moment some kind of JavaScript kicked in to instead change the contents of the page to some goatse.cx-style shock image which I don't recall. In other words, the "Apostrophe Protection Society" page just existed as a kind of bait-and-switch cover.
I quickly closed the page, and ironically what I ended up remembering is not anything about the shock image but the notion of the "Apostrophe Protection Society". I think at the time I assumed that the notion of the "Apostrophe Protection Society" was intended to be part of the joke - that nobody would ever actually make such an organisation.
I never bumped into that site again, but for heaven knows why (my memory is scary sometimes) I still remember the existence of this site pretending to be about an "Apostrophe Protection Society" (or some similar title).
So, TIL it actually is real - and actually a legitimate organisation. Presumably whoever made the above website must have picked the website at random and copied its contents. Well, I hope this random anecdote about what the web used to be like is of interest to someone...
No! speaking of lost punctuation marks, even more humorously goatse.cx
it's pronounced "goatsex". get it? get the leet joke? the joke doesn't work if you misinterpret the semantic versioning "point" as a full stop. full stop.
Errors like "They want to outlaw Christian's" are easily avoidable; just stay away from Facebook comments.
Edit: American
I'm also American.
And if it were, I would not do Jameses, I would go traditional and say James his pen (since 's is a contraction of his)
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/His_genitive
Pronunciation-dependent spelling is not novel in English: “a” and “an” are the same word, but the choice depends on the succeeding phoneme. The King James Version of the Bible uses the phrase “an horse for an hundred pieces of silver”, showing that the dominant accent at the time used a silent h in both words: “an ’orse for an ’undred pieces of silver”. I contemplated the matter a few years ago and decided that “a horse for a hundred pieces of silver” was a more reasonable reading of the phrase in Australian English (though most will diligently read the clumsy “an horse, &c.”).
This is one of the subtleties across accents. An American might write “an herb” because they’ll pronounce it “an ’erb”, whereas an Australian would write “a herb” because we sound the h.
In fact I'd go so far as to say that the apostrophe-only style ("James'") is somewhat archaic and definitely out of fashion.
I don't think St Marys Terrace really works though.
In eats, shoots and leaves I recall the claim being made that apostrophes can be used for plurality with borrowed words. A particular example would thus be the "potato". Therefore, a so-called grocer's apostrophe to pluralise potato would be ok, while to pluralise turnip it would not.
Similarly it was considered appropriate for pluralising numbers and days of the week. "There are fifty-two Wednesday's in a normal year." However, if the contraction argument were correct then "Tomes Pen" -> "Tom's Pen" could also allow "Potatoes" -> "Potato's"
However, from that article:
>Some people thought that the ’s at the end of a word indicating possession was simply a stand-in for “his,” and so “the king’s book” would be the shortened version of “the king his book.” This theory is no longer popular. Instead, it seems likely that the genitive apostrophe is an illustration of our language’s older, highly inflectional state.
So... Maybe. But I don't think it's "mainly" my professor's!
Which makes me sad, because he was a man of good cheer, and erudition, who so enjoyed having his ideas challenged by interesting new ones. I would have enjoyed going down this particular linguistic / orthographic rabbit hole with him. He passed away last year, and this conversation reminded me how much I miss him.
He had a good innings, though! 1930 - 2022. What a wonderful, interesting life.
John Richards, self-confessed pedant and founder of the Apostrophe Protection Society – obituary, 24 April 2021
https://www.telegraph.co.uk/obituaries/2021/04/24/john-richa...
It's the same case in the US -- you see it most in locally owned mom-and-pop style stores, especially ones that have been around for a while.
It genuinely makes me wonder if it's out of ignorance, or if it's intentionally keeping a kind of old-school charm. "If apostrophes were good enough for my grandfather, they're good enough for me!"
Of course, there's also a store local to me that has "&" on its big sign instead of "&", so I don't want to read in too much intention. (And you can tell it's not the kind of business that can afford to have a replacement sign made.)
> If you’re looking for guidance on the correct use of apostrophes, …
> It's free, so why not join today!
> Do please have a browse and see if there’s anything you want to purchase.
I’m genuinely disappointed at this inconsistency: the first and third use curly quotes, the second uses straight quotes. They should pick one style (which, for such an organisation, should I think fairly clearly be the curly, unless they go bizarre and decide that U+0027 APOSTROPHE’s name is enough to warrant protecting it despite its inferiority to U+2019 RIGHT SINGLE QUOTATION MARK) and stick with it assiduously.
They’ve also got a pair of double quotes on the quotation at the end, and they’re straight.
> 1000s of bargains here!
The problem with a sentence that says "1000's" isn't just the presence of the apostrophe. "1000" is not a substitute for the word "thousand". It means "one thousand". "1000s" therefore is a nonsense construction, apostrophe or not, unless you're talking about years or other number ranges. The same goes for "millions", etc, as well as "hundreds". (This doesn't apply to 10; "10s of thousands" is acceptable and correct.)
* 1 The non-ASCII apostrophe is always ’, so programs that automatically insert smart quotes do the wrong thing for apostrophes at the start of a word. Some better examples IMHO: ’tis (it is), ’nuff (enough), ’cause (because), ’em (them), ’fraid (afraid), ’n’ (and),
* 2 The "name ends with s" rule also applies to names ending with "x".
* 3 is arguably just a special case of 2 (e.g. we can say "a holiday of two weeks"), but note that this is very similar to the attributive use (7) which never† uses the plural or an apostrophe but does use a hyphen (a two-week holiday).
* 5 There are, in fact, grammatically-valid uses of "its’", when "it" is a noun rather than a pronoun. A non-derogatory example, in some variants of tag (the children's game), the its’ advantage increases over time.
* 6 Whether apostrophes are used for plurals of non-words is a matter of style, not correctness.
* 7, † Some apparent exceptions are due to words that are actually collective instead of plural for the particular use case. For example, "arms industry" is like "clothes industry". More often, people use errors and omit the required apostrophe. "farmers market" is an abomination.
Protect the apostrophe! Demand the rightful 's'!
Unfortunately, (almost?) all smart quote implementations default to replacing ' at the end of a word by a closing quote (even if no opening quote precedes it), so you get tons of apostrophes pointing in the wrong direction (looking like 6 instead of 9).
Perhaps bump up the opacity one more notch?