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I think they got cause and effect mixed up.
Maybe, but not necessarily. Ostensibly, if half of your human intellectual capital as a nation is getting underutilized, it makes sense that you're gonna be poorer, and poorer countries are probably inherently less stable.
That doesn't explain the economic success of Japan, S. Korea, and other parts of Asia?
Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia are doing quite well (economically).
Whoever wrote this article doesn't seem to understand correlation and causation, but I think some natural resources might have their foot on the scale in your example.
The Asian countries have broadly diversified economies versus the countries you listed which are primarily resource exporters, so I don't think that's a meaningful comparison.
They also have extremely authoritarian forms of government. It’s easy to be stable when you can lock up anyone who’s causing trouble (at least in the short term).
They're the exact opposite of stable. That's why they're so oppressive. They're constantly fighting against high levels of instability that never leave the system. All dictatorships and authoritarian systems have a lack of stability to varying degrees based on their systems. If you have stability, you don't have to oppress, murder, purge people to maintain power.

They play whack-a-mole with the constant instability.

People get this backwards very commonly. It's not stability they always have, with occasional instability. They always have instability, it's a constant, and the regimes exist in never ending fear of the population because of that. Their actions are the process of removing the greater extremes of instability as they creep up to threaten their power or as they become threatening enough to be noticed.

The most common example of this I see, at least over the past ~20 years, is Saddam Hussein's regime in Iraq. There is a forever stream of claims that: hey, at least Iraq had stability before the war. No they didn't, they had the exact opposite of stability. They had extreme oppression, extreme instability. If you have to constantly oppress people to keep your power, it means your system is wildly unstable. Saddam had to constantly murder and purge people, even within his own ranks, to fight for keeping control against the never ending instability that his regime prompted. Saddam could never stop fighting against that instability, or it would have toppled him rapidly.

The constant instability can also be seen in Afghanistan, where a strong regime such as the Taliban can impose stability.

Where it gets hard, is what are the underlying reasons to the constant instability.

Poverty and a very religious population seem to be two factors that go hand in hand.

South Africa is a rich nation with high inequality and extremely high unemployment. Under utilization doesn't seem to make nations poor as long as they can export in-demand products.

My point is that there is a huge difference between people being poor and nations being poor.

> Ostensibly, if half of your human intellectual capital as a nation is getting underutilized, it makes sense that you're gonna be poorer, and poorer countries are probably inherently less stable.

That depends. Slavery underuses the intellectual capital of slaves but makes the society richer. Humans don't only have their intelligence to offer.

How does lower intellectual utilization logically lead to the country being poor?
Both factors are the effect of a third cause: liberalization of their cultures.

Conservative tribal societies simply don’t like new ideas. That’s bad for women’s rights and it’s bad for economic progress.

They don’t do a very good job of defining what “treat women badly” means - you can find lots of women in any society who will insist that they’re being treated badly, and lots of women in supposedly oppressive societies who will defend traditionalism.
Being deprived of the opportunity to get an education, physically assaulted, subjected to unfair and biased laws, forbidden from autonomy, and having ones life path dictated from birth? All that sounds like being treated badly. Would you be okay with that?
While I agree with you, I think the point made by OP is simply that everything is subjective. What is "good" and what is "bad" is subjective. Not everyone on earth will have the same definition.
Another challenge is that conservative or traditionalist societies can isolate women from 'dangerous' ideas. Surveys from members and their kids before and after migrating would be interesting to compare.
> “A woman who drives a car will be killed,” says Sheikh Hazim Muhammad al-Manshad

That’s the first line of the article. I don’t think it’s really subjective to say that killing women for driving cars counts as treating them badly. (Unless you just want to make some kind of general philosophical point about everything being subjective, but how would that be relevant?)

They went into about as much detail as one would expect, given the context:

This is a composite of such things as unequal treatment of women in family law and property rights, early marriage for girls, patrilocal marriage, polygamy, bride price, son preference, violence against women and social attitudes towards it (for example, is rape seen as a property crime against men?).

Since this is as much a book review as anything else, it can perhaps be forgiven for not going into complete detail. The level of detail you're asking for here is more likely to be found in the book itself. I'm not seeing any indication, though, that they're just going off of some sort of opinion survey, as you would seem to be implying in your critique. That list above includes a lot of things that can be fairly objectively measured, either directly or through proxy variables.

Patrilocality and son preference have nothing to do with abuse of women. Patrilocality is largely pragmatic and son preference is a symptom of population control unless the author is brave enough to claim that abortion specifically against girls is bad (I doubt that lol)
> brave enough to claim that abortion specifically against girls is bad

why would it be brave? Firing people is ok. Firing people for being of particular gender is bad.

The main argument behind pro-choice is that a fetus isn't a person. Otherwise abortion would mean killing people.

If you really believe your analogy of firing people is a good one, then you have already recognized the aborted fetus as a person.

The main argument behind pro-choice is that women own their own bodies, not society at large.
It's a large enough issue that you can't really sum up “the main argument” in a pithy Hacker News comment; most anyone with a reasoned opinion has thought about it enough to fill several essays, and to get the “main argument” requires considering a lot of people's reasoning.
You really can, though. This discussion is considered “solved” in most of the so-called civilized world.

Your argument could be equally applied to other topics that were once debated hotly but now are mostly considered “solved”, such as “is it good to have slaves”, or “should women be allowed to vote”.

“Solved” ≠ “simple”. There's a consensus on the right answer, but that doesn't make the reasoning trivial.

• “Is it good to have slaves”: they're people, so they shouldn't be enslaved. (Almost axiomic, with the same reasoning in consequentialist, deontological and virtue ethical systems.)

• “Should women be allowed to vote?”: they're people who are affected by policy, so yes, they should be able to decide it. (See: the whole justification for democracy in the first place; it just falls out. … Should children be allowed to vote?)

I don't think you can come up with something so simple for abortion, unless it's one of the axioms of your ethical system. That's more a function of our (relative) lack of understanding, rather than the problem being intrinsically complex… probably.

Oh, it obviously isn't simple, otherwise it wouldn't have taken so long to abolish slavery and let women vote, I couldn't agree more.

But imagine stepping out from your time machine to 1860 Richmond, VA, I don't think many people would agree with your first point, that now seems so obvious.

It's a sign of the immense cultural progress we made that you can now state your two points as truisms. Let's not forget that there was a whole war fought about whether your point one holds value or not - more than 600,000 people were killed trying to find an answer to this question (almost as many as died due to COVID in this country so far).

Our cultural values will continue to evolve, things that are heavily debated today will seem as plain as the two points you raise are for us today.

> Oh, it obviously isn't simple, otherwise it wouldn't have taken so long to abolish slavery and let women vote, I couldn't agree more.

Slavery didn't carry on so long because people “weren't sure whether it was okay”. It carried on because the powerful wanted slaves. The history of slavery discourse is the history of people inventing new reasons that it's actually a good thing – but the reasons it's a bad thing stay the same, and were even known and remarked upon in Ancient Greece.

Women had the vote in 1264, when the House of Commons was first formed in England, and they had the vote in 1295 when the then-King officially declared the House of Commons part of parliament. In fact, England had universal suffrage (albeit hampered by the lack of secret ballot) until 1430, when it was restricted to forty-shilling freeholders.

Are you really saying these are hard problems? These are problems that were introduced as a means of enabling the concentration of power. The ethics of abortion is a problem introduced by our biology; why would you even expect it to be so easy?

So you’re saying there doesn’t exist (and never did) racism nor misogyny, never antisemitism, but it was always a plot of the few powerful? Everyone always agreed and of course still does that all humans are created equal and deserve the same rights, regardless of religion, gender, skin color, sexual orientation, but the powerful elite overruled the peace loving and embracing populace? How convenient!

That’s a steep argument that I will not even engage with. You throw around numbers, but it looks like there’s quite a bit of history and current events for you to read up on.

The ethics of women voting, slavery, and the Holocaust were argued on the same biological basis, that some groups are simply fundamentally, biologically, inferior. It leaves me completely speechless and disgusted that you come forward and deny that.

> So you’re saying there doesn’t exist (and never did) racism nor misogyny, never antisemitism, but it was always a plot of the few powerful?

Nope. In Ancient Greece, basically all non-slaves benefited from slavery, and ultimately they didn't do anything about it. Within their culture, they had the right to do bad things (slavery) to those they defeated in war; their society was structured such that it required slaves, and most not-enslaved people were okay with that… or, at least, few objected enough to try to put a stop to it.

The “oh, but they're actually inferior, and naturally deserve this” arguments came later.

I'm making specific claims, not the general ones you think I am. In Ancient Greece, it was merely the powerful, not the powerful elite, who upheld slavery – even though the word had negative connotations in Plato's time. In England, it was the upper classes that imposed restrictions on voting, and the lower classes who made themselves a massive nuisance until those got progressively relaxed… but it was also a rebellious noble who introduced the House of Commons (for largely self-serving reasons) in the first place. In America, it was mostly slaveholders who argued that slavery was good actually. (I don't know much about US history, though, and you can easily cast doubt on this assertion by showing me a slavery apologist who wasn't a slaver.)

> The ethics of women voting, slavery, and the Holocaust were argued on the same biological basis,

Eventually, yes. But this particular excuse was just one in a long, long line of excuses. It's rare for one group to oppress another on ideological grounds when they aren't getting something else out of it; the “ideological grounds” are a mere farce.

Somewhere around the 1350s (± 20 years; I haven't looked into it recently, and I'm no good with dates), the House of Commons became responsible for deciding taxation, a right the barons claimed for themselves in 1215 with the Magna Carta. The justification for this was three-fold; in order for a tax to be just, it must:

• be demonstrated, by the king (the one who imposed taxes), to be necessary;

• be to the benefit of the community; and

• be approved by the community.

This is, fundamentally, the justification for democracy. This is the logic that says all taxpayers should have the right to vote.

Why, then, was the right to vote restricted to forty-shilling freeholders (landowners with at least 40 shillings' annual rent) in 1430‽ Well, “elections had been crowded by persons of low estate“, of course. (Charles Seymour, Electoral Reform in England and Wales: The Development and Operation of the Parliamentary Franchise, 1832-1885, page 11: https://archive.org/details/electoralreformi00seymuoft/page/...)

I appreciate the historical context (that I don't have), and it is interesting.

But I disagree that you can make the clear line to the present day, or even 200 years ago. There were no regular mass protests against slavery "because it's obviously bad" in the U.S. that had to be violently suppressed, there were no regular mass protest in Nazi Germany against how Jews were treated even before the Holocaust "because it's obviously bad", there were no regular mass protests for women suffrage all around the world.

I doubt any Proud Boy will trace his heritage to Plato or their disagreement with them. The connotation you describe may all be historically accurate (I have no knowledge of that), but I argue that it was lost over the last few hundred years, and plays no role in the current discussion of human rights, women's right, etc. whatsoever.

Ask a (neo) nazi / slaveholder if they think that people of color, jews, etc. are inherently, biologically, inferior, and they will tell you yes. I will even make the claim that none of them has ever discussed "the right to vote restricted to forty-shilling freeholders (landowners with at least 40 shillings' annual rent) in 1430‽ Well, “elections had been crowded by persons of low estate“, of course. (Charles Seymour, Electoral Reform in England and Wales: The Development and Operation of the Parliamentary Franchise, 1832-1885" before punching someone in the face, cracking the whip, or leading someone into the gas chambers.

PS: If you want to make specific claims and not have them understood as general - don't make general claims.

I was making specific claims and a general claim. Here's the general one:

The “moral complexity” of slavery, suffrage etc. is almost entirely artificial.¹ There is genuine, non-artificial moral uncertainty surrounding abortion (even though we can determine the right thing to do in a subset of cases).

Do you dispute this? If not, there's no argument.

¹: I also made the general claim that, as society shifted so that previous justifications could no longer hold water, the artificial justification in vogue also shifted. Fundamentally, “we deserve to be in charge” doesn't seem to change, and it's incredibly rare for anyone in power to question that – this refers to the “why” reasons used to justify that assertion (which aren't proper reasons, because they're effectively post-hoc rationalisations to support, not evidence, the claim).

Precisely. Therefore, society at large should have no business in the reason a woman wants to remove part of her body.

By this logic, why should wanting to remove a fetus with a specific genital be considered any more sexist than wanting to undergo a gender change operation? In both cases, you don't like the reproductive organ in your body and want to get rid of it.

Woman cannot tell the gender without a help of technology. Technology can amplify good or bad results of person's actions . Therefore I would argue it requires debate and establishment of norms that are outside of natural laws.
Society is allowed to have an opinion. It’s when that opinion turns into law that it becomes a problem.

Personally I think women who smoke while pregnant are horrible, and I don’t mind saying something to them about it. I don’t think my opinion should have the force of law however.

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I will be brave enough to claim that abortion specifically against girls is bad. I’d be brave enough to say that abortion specifically against boys is bad too.

I am confused as to why you think this requires much bravery though. It doesn’t feel like a particularly hidden belief that I’m letting out

Because once you start claiming that certain subsets of abortions are bad, you start to open up inconvenient conversations that erode Roe v Wade and then it would be an actual debate instead of a foregone conclusion for the left.

I’m not trying to incite anything here though. I’m quite certain that the author genuinely made a mistake including it in their list.

The wording "abortion specifically against women is bad" is ambiguous. It could be taken to mean either, "aborting girls is bad, and aborting boys is not bad," or, "selectively aborting girls but not boys is bad."

The discussion thus far is consistent with the possibility that each participant has taken the phrase to mean something different.

I don’t think this erodes roe v wade. I don’t think “choosing to abort your pregnancy specifically because it was a girl is bad” rises beyond social condemnation and needs to be legislated.

There seems to be some sort of unspoken belief among anti abortion proponents that roe v wade and pro choice beliefs are built on the flimsiest of legal arguments and if we even squint at it wrong the whole thing will come tumbling down.

> I’m not trying to incite anything here though.

>… then it would be an actual debate instead of a foregone conclusion for the left.

I find it hard to rectify those two statements in the same discussion much less the same comment

Edit: added the word “specifically” to the second sentence

How could you possibly legislate away such a thing though? Outside of a total ban? To my knowledge, not even the totalitarian government of China has successfully been able to legislate it away.
I think you need to reread my comment.

I specified that I don’t think this a something bad enough to need legislation. Social condemnation is enough

It's _at least_ not a good sign for a society's treatment of women if parents preferentially don't even want one.
> Patrilocality and son preference have nothing to do with abuse of women.

Women that move to live in the husbands extended family have no existing relationships, no blood relations around them. They are outsiders and so are very vulnerable. Son preference indicates that females are not valued, which as the article points out is correlated with poor treatment of women.

Of course aborting pregnancies of females is bad, it’s utterly stunning that you can think joking about it is ok. As the article points out an imbalance in the population means there won’t be enough girls to go around. This correlates with high rates of violence and crime due to all those frustrated men.

Bride price can be a benign custom in otherwise normal marriages as long as you're not literally buying the woman. If it's accompanied with the bride's family helping outfit the spousal home, it's basically a wash and smarter than giving the money to DeBeers.
That’s true. It has to be judged on a case by case basis and that is what they do in the book.
> They don’t do a very good job of defining what “treat women badly” means

In the first(!) paragraph it was mentioned. It was actually the very first sentence in that paragraph: “A woman who drives a car will be killed,” says Sheikh Hazim Muhammad al-Manshad.

If you want to be pedantic about it, then yes, it's not mathematically defined what "treating women badly" means. But the very first sentence should give you a clue what they're talking about.

Apparently, I didn't read the same article you read. What is your definition of "treat women badly"?

Do you not realize that when women are killed for driving a car or for speaking with a man, that they likely will say they are treated well, when they are interviewed next to their husband and family?

Reminds me of this quote from Barack Obama...

"I'm absolutely confident that for two years if every nation on earth was run by women, you would see a significant improvement across the board on just about everything... living standards and outcomes."

yeah, look at the great job Margaret Thatcher did
Catherine the Great, Queen Victoria, Margaret Thatcher, Angela Merkel.

The last one caused the CDU to drop from 40% to 20% in 6 years and is partly responsible for Brexit.

Thatcher has mixed reviews as well.

Merkel responsible for Brexit?
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> The last one caused the CDU to drop from 40% to 20% in 6 years and is partly responsible for Brexit.

Excellent example of cherry-picking btw.

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Merkel has been chancellor for 16 years, and has maintained a longer track record for popularity than any US or UK leader I can remember. She also announced in October 2018 that she wasn’t going to seek a fifth term as Chancellor in the 2021 elections, after which the CDU opinion polls moved very little for 18 months before first going up to 40% for about a year and then going down to 20% now.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Opinion_polling_for_the_2021_G...

Merkel is horrible for a lot of things, but your example is a terrible one...

She's a conservative, and the conservative economic doctrine is austerity for the masses, but handouts for businesses. She and her economic minister presided over the Euro crisis terribly, causing hardships in Spain, Italy, Greece. People commited suicide because of it! Since Germany was the biggest economy in Europe of course what Berlin said was what Brussels would parrot.

And I'm glad she said Syrians were welcome, but after many years of telling Germans and other Europeans that they needed to tighten their belts, suddenly she said "we can do it!". It's freaking understandable that the people who've been indoctrinated that without the belt-tightening there'll be nothing left for their pensions are pissed off at the idea that several hundred thousand refugees would be fed, clothed, housed, etc, with their tax money.

Again I'm glad she welcomed the refugees, but after spreading austerity doctrine all over Europe, the populist rightwing reaction is understandable. The rightwing party AfD is now a significant fraction in German state and federal parliaments, if you want to be cruel you can say Merkel did a better job of growing Nazism than a certain previuos German leader who had Europe-conquering ambitions..

> causing hardships in Spain, Italy, Greece.

FFS. It’s not as if Germany forced those countries to utterly bork their finances. Suppose Germany had said no, were not lending you money, it belongs to our citizens. What would those countries have done, who else would have helped them? The fact is they got better terms from Germany than anywhere else, and what thanks do the Germans get? So glad us Brits stayed out of all of that.

Can we just call that sexism against men? There's nothing innate that makes men or women better for the job (both have strengths and weaknesses) according to scientists; so a balance should be more effective than just replacing one dominance with another.
Exactly how I see it. There are plenty of women who could run it better than men in power, and plenty of women who could run it worse!

Take Elizabeth Holmes for example, proudly proclaimed to the female Steve Jobs. Turns out she’s a lying sociopath. Just because you’re woman (or man) does not make you good or bad.

Especially in a position of power. Power corrupts, regardless of gender.

Representation within leadership can result in more equitable outcomes for less advantaged groups.
Obama said not that he wanted a 50/50 split (or more accurate 49/51 split) between men/women (which would be balanced). He said he thought all positions should be women for 2 years.
There's a different way to think of it. Since most countries are dominated by men, they are already enjoying the benefits of male leadership. Putting women in charge will bring new benefits that men couldn't offer. What he's saying is not so much that women are better leaders, but that they have strengths that complement male leadership we've always had.
Incompetence is not sexist. Barack Obama is a politician he will say anything that will increase his rating or get more votes.
He said this after his presidency had ended.
Exactly. If he believed it to the degree he espoused it, he would have put up an actual female candidate for public office. Instead, for decades he ran for various public offices.
He didn't stop being a public figure after his presidency ended.
Ah yes, politicians. Known for only speaking the truth and only for the greater good
One of the few things I disagree with Barack Obama on. I miss him so much.
Is this idea that representation of less advantaged groups within leadership can lead to more equitable outcomes that disagreeable of an idea?
It’s very context specific to the state of a society but no. I’m specifically referring to women, not all disenfranchised groups.
This is not representation, this is total replacement. I would also dispute "less advantaged groups". Few womens are in prison.
This is the thought I have about the Middle East, that if women would be more in power, a lot of the countries would develop quicker.
Well, that doesn't speak for his judgement seeing as how 100% women is just as exclusionary as 100% men. It might be the 'right' type of exclusion in the ideological circles he frequents but that doesn't make it true.
He didn’t say either that it would be right, or even on balance desirable.
Reminds me of this quote from anyone's grandmother...

"The grass is always greener on the other side of the fence."

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I wonder if it ever occurred to the author that maybe societies that are poorer and less stable treat women badly...
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One could argue that's in the title. I understand someone might interpret it to mean [0] but it looks more like [1] to me. Could someone better versed in english and logic please clarify what the title means?

[0] treat women badly ⇒ poorer and less stable

[1] treat women badly ⇔ poor and less stable

[2] it's ambiguous

[3] poor and less stable ⇒ treat women badly

That is treating women poorly is not leading to being poor, but result of being poor.

This may be true but definitely not what the title is trying to convey, right?
Right above the title is "The cost of misogyny".

The author(s) _clearly_ want to manipulate you into believing [0].

[0] might be true nonetheless, but that doesn't change the fact that this article is the mother of all fallacies.

It to mention the hidden variable: “dysfunctional societies both end up poorer and treat their women badly”.
Which way does the arrow of causation go though? Seems like it could go either way. Maybe it does.
Or maybe a third factor causes both, you always have to consider that as well.
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Mmh… Someone told me in East Germany women were treated in a much fairer way than in West Germany (equal pay, equal oppertunity etc.) it didn’t really turn into a particularly rich country nor stable…
Well DDR treated their women bad, and their men not any better at all! That's why it collapsed.
Equality in poverty, the Communist ethos (except for the elites of the ruling party, of course).
Despite being under constant attack, paying reparations and starting off much poorer than the western counterpart, the material conditions of workers were improved significantly in the DDR.

Worth reading “Why Women Have Better Sex Under Socialism” by Kristen Ghodsee.

Given how totally Germany was broken by WW2, it doesn’t really say much that material conditions were improved by the DDR.
The argument doesn't necessarily go the other way though. Not treated well associated with less stability does not necessarily imply that women being treated equally leads to a stable society. If East Germany had treated their women worse then maybe it would have been even more unstable?
Sure but then you can’t really compare iran and the us, cause there are so many other factors. Nor can you make an average of badly-treating societies for the same reason. At least East and West Germany started off the same place in 1945.
There are correlation coefficients other than -1.0, 0.0, and 1.0.
How they treated the ordinary person (man or woman) is the true canary.
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All communist countries promote equality between men and women, but magically their leadership circles almost(?) never include women.
The DDR achieved about half the GDP per capita of West Germany. That would be considered quite good in most of the world.
But they were the same country before... they had equal starting position, both had same people, and pretty much both were equally destroyed

West germany was a mark of "the best stuff" in many countries, and DDR had trabants...

They didn't really have the same starting point. The West had the Marshall Plan and the East had to reboot itself.
> But they were the same country before... they had equal starting position, both had same people, and pretty much both were equally destroyed

Not really. The fighting and destruction in the East was much worse, and the Soviets initial plan was punishment - lots of industry was simply dismantled and shipped to the Soviet Union. While the Western allies realised early on they'll need Germany against the Soviets, and started investing in it ( the Marshall plan).

> The DDR achieved about half the GDP per capita of West Germany. That would be considered quite good in most of the world.

Most of the world didn't start as part of united Germany and differ from the West mainly in the governing ideology and resources of the occupying power that dictated policy to it.

Correlation !== Causation.
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Inaccurate.

This is a overused misnomer. Correlation is a necessary precursor to causation, but it's existence does not guarantee causation.

If correlation is established it doesn't automatically establish causation as well, but it functions as evidence for two possibilities:

The possibility of causation and the possibility of a shared causative source.

It is wrong to say they are not equal. They are equal in a really fuzzy way.

Actually, it's totally accurate. And I respectfully disagree with your opinion ;)
And respectfully. You're wrong. Utterly and completely. This is beyond opinion. This is logic. I urge you to think about it.
Correlation !== Causation // true

Correlation != Causation // false

So Javascript really was right about having both operators. /s

I think you could say correlation and causation are correlated, but I don't think it's fair to repurpose the word "equal" to mean something it doesn't.
If two things have a causative connection they ALWAYS have a correlation as well.

If two things have a correlative connection they don't always have a causative connection as well.

I never repurposed the word equal. But to say they are not equal is highly, highly inaccurate.

Correlation does not imply causation but causation DOES imply correlation. Applying the word not equal to this is not accurate at ALL.

Seems like pedant-ism but it's not. Trust me. Correlation is evidence for causation. But people always throw this term around as if finding a correlation between two things is utterly useless in determining causation.

It's like me presenting a witness who saw a murder occur. Technically speaking, the witness is evidence for murder, not proof of murder. This fact is obvious to everyone. It's completely useless to say something obvious along the lines of:

TESTIMONY != PROOF

The testimony is strong evidence for murder, as correlation is strong evidence for causation.

Seriously, someone just posts one line CORRELATION != CAUSATION and everyone just gathers around this misnomer as if it renders the correlation utterly useless and pointless. No. The correlation is a TESTIMONY to a murder. It is powerful evidence. Do not dismiss it based off some stupid statistical catch phrase.

> If two things have a causative connection they ALWAYS have a correlation as well.

Only “ALWAYS” when you completely control for all other influences. It's possible for a causal relation to not have a correlation otherwise.

Yeah you're right, but you do get my point. I should write, causation ALWAYS IMPLIES correlation.
More generally, societies that treat minority opinions and individuality badly are poorer and less stable.

Whether it's women's rights, gay/other minority rights, drug usage, mental health, individual freedoms.

China is pretty hostile toward minority opinions and they are quickly becoming the richest country in the world
'China' point is definitely fair, but they're nowhere near becoming rich in a GDP/capita basis.

China is poorer than Mexico on a nominal and PPP basis.

Poorer than Brazil on a nominal basis.

They're going to have difficulty closing in on Chile, Latvia and Poland there. [1]

On a PPP basis, it's much harder to fathom - they definitely have access to 'cheap goods' so of course their PPP basis is considerably higher, at the same time the quality of most things is very bad, the air is unbreathable in many places, outside major city centres services are problematic and civic dysfunction is still rife.

So the that PPP calculation is tricky, and we know it's also leverage for Brazil just as well.

But also note China does have serious economic 'leaders' that those other countries do not, and, China might treat ethnic and gay minorities poorly, but for women it's not the same. DiDi CEO is a female, and female leadership is normal there.

[1] https://www.worldometers.info/gdp/gdp-per-capita/

> at the same time the quality of most things is very bad

What an ignorant thing to say. China generally produces high quality stuff, for their own population as well as for the entire world.

I'm sorry that you're not aware of the reality of total lack of quality in many products and services in China, which is partly due to a function of lower costing, but also due to a general lack of industrial focus on quality, and particularly a lack of standards.

And then gaslight others for pointing out the facts ...

I work for a company that sells an electrical device, which has considerable standards applied in Europe and North America, and basically none in China. The competitive products to ours in China are essentially dangerous. They will start fires.

We manufacture in China, and depending on the manufacturer, can usually make no assumptions about quality, other than it will be the lowest possible unless there is considerable oversight. Unbelievable, 'shocking' hacks and cutting corners, which we view as a matter of quality, they view as a matter of cost reduction. With the bigger factories that do business with big established brands, that's less of a problem because they're consistently building for markets with higher standards and requirements.

For some thoughts on Food Safety [1][2]

In China, in the year 2000, only 50% of the population had 'basic sanitation' services i.e. toilets. That's changed a lot, but there are still wide swaths of population literally without basic sanitation. The number is effectively 100% in almost every other semi-developed country. [3]. Even in 2015, 5% of the country still does not have access to basic water. [4]

Chinese construction standards are de-facto low (they have regulations, just not very well met), so here are two videos that demonstrate some issues [5][6] - to be fair - this is all anecdotal, and China is a 'very large place'. You're surely going to find crap construction in every country, however, the anecdotes are quite excessive, and they are illustrative. Entire sections of homes, only a few years old completely falling apart, buildings falling down etc..

This affects major projects [7] - there are systematic problems with the quality of concrete that will come home to roost some day.

As far as Air Quality, it's 'Very Bad' - the CEO of DiDi lamented this herself, indicating literally her children had difficulty breathing.

Have a look [8] at the air quality literally at this moment in time. Up to 30% of China is, at this literal moment in time, breathing air that is 'hazardous'.

And of course the political issues, censorship etc. - but those are harder to factor into an economic equation.

So when calculating PPP - the material quality of goods does matter, things like 'air quality' aren't in that calculation but they very well do matter as they are a direct externalization of the system.

China is a large, poor country and derives it's economic power mostly from it's size, not that much else. It's different than Brazil or India (other large, poor countries) in that it does have a number of economic champions.

There's almost a 100% chance that China will soon have the largest economy in the world (by many measure it already does), but almost a 0% chance that we will see GDP/capita, even on a PPP basis, reach that of most modern nations, at least in our lifetimes. That is happening/will happen only for a subset of the population.

[1] https://www.foodsafetynews.com/2014/07/chinas-food-safety-is...

[2] https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/fsn3.1281

[3] https://news.cgtn.com/news/2019-11-18/How-the-Toilet-Revolut...

I'm sure your experience is valid, but you haven't established that most of what is produced in China is very bad. That's an exaggeration. The very fact that your company manufacture in China means at the very least that the quality of the goods produced there is sufficiently high for your purposes. That you also see bad quality while bottom-scraping the market is not surprising. This very obvious deduction generalises as well, due to the enormous number of western companies that manufacture in China. Their standards are certainly being met, because otherwise they could not outsource their manufacturing to China.

> Chinese construction standards are de-facto low

Compare major cities in China with major cities in the west. Compare road infrastructure (esp. highway infrastructure) and train infrastructure in densely populated areas. Their highway network is an impressive feat. China is surpassing the west, and has already surpassed the west in infrastructure standards in many areas, e.g. by pioneering high-speed railways.

https://edition.cnn.com/travel/article/china-fastest-maglev-....

The US is currently making an attempt to improve the dire infrastructure situation, but we'll see how that turns out considering the intrinsic inefficiencies of state / federal infrastructure planning in the US. IMO it's almost surely to be hijacked by capital and the money will thus to a large extent be funnelled away to corrupt and undeserving profiteers.

https://news.wttw.com/2021/04/26/lightfoot-launches-1st-phas...

https://la.curbed.com/2016/11/1/13493756/los-angeles-driving...

> but almost a 0% chance that we will see GDP/capita

GDP is not an accurate measure of general economic development in the modern world. The high GDP of the US does not correlate with its failing infrastructure, its inefficient medical and educational system, high amount of poverty, drug addiction and crime etc. The financialisation and de-industrialisation of the US economy decoupled the material standards of the people from the profits of the rich, and thus GDP is largely a fictitious number. So much of GDP is tied up in meaningless activity, like the production of overpriced weaponry, increasing bureaucratization and the prevalence of so-called "bullshit jobs", and in a corrupt and immoral finance / property sector which also poses a direct threat to global economic stability (cf. the financial crisis of 2008). Let's compare living standards, not GDP. China is rapidly surpassing the US in this area. While they still have rural areas which are underdeveloped, they have made major strides this decade and recently eradicated extreme poverty. Their next step is to eradicate poverty altogether.

People often confuse the long history of low-quality imports from China for some essential quality of China. They don't realize or ignore that the quality was determined by what the people who commissioned the products or built the factory--usually not companies or people in China--were willing to pay for their target margins.

There's a scene in Back to the Future where past-Doc is shocked to learn Japan shed its reputation for poor quality once all the good stuff started coming from there in the 1980s. China is experiencing a similar perception shift as more companies inside and out make higher quality stuff there.

One of the most innovative lens manufacturers is a Chinese company (Venus Optics). I'm probably a few months from buying a flash from a Chinese company (Godox) that by all accounts is 90%+ of the quality of the first-party flashes at half the price. I use a Huion tablet which I have to admit is a bit shoddy in construction, but is almost as precise as the Wacom equivalent it competes with at a fraction of the price. If it breaks twice and I replace it each time, I'm still out less than if I went with Wacom.

I don't care for a lot of the policies of the party, but I still have to recognize when the country makes something good.

Whether or not that growth is stable and entirely above board is an open matter of speculation here on a monthly basis.
Women are neither a minority nor an opinion.
Is feminism not part of individuality?
Feminism is a philosophy, ideology, social movement, political movement, etc. Not all women are feminists, and not all feminists are women.
So? I never said otherwise.
> societies that treat minority opinions and individuality badly are poorer and less stable.

Remind me what happened to the two states that, for the first, applied a simili-apartheid in half the country, and, for the second, held its population in an iron vice? Ah yes, they got to be the most powerful states in the world. And as the second failed, it got replaced by its quite similar little brother.

“Badly” in this case is about as subjective as it gets. For instance in many parts of the world women consider not having to work a privilege.
Any data to support this?
Talk to them.

And to go further, I would argue that most people would consider not working to be a privilege. Even if I'm a man, I'd love to live off my passive earnings.

Depends on the context. If one gets seriously injured, can't work, and survives off of disability, that may not feel like a privilege. At least some of the women we're talking about, they're doing all the cooking, cleaning, childcare, etc. They have no financial independence and often few options if they're being mistreated. I don't think it's comparable to passive income at all.
The criteria used were:

“This is a composite of such things as unequal treatment of women in family law and property rights, early marriage for girls, patrilocal marriage, polygamy, bride price, son preference, violence against women and social attitudes towards it (for example, is rape seen as a property crime against men?).”

That doesn’t seem particularly subjective. These are all clearly instances of unequal treatment based on gender.

Finally there is a world of difference between not having to work and being prohibited from working, but in any case not having a paid job isn’t the same as not working. There’s plenty of domestic work to be done, and there are studies into relative leisure time by gender.

https://www.tandfonline.com/doi/full/10.1080/13668803.2018.1...

“ In countries with conservative gender norms, low levels of childcare coverage, limited paternity leave and lower political power for women, women’s leisure quality is lower than men’s. In more egalitarian countries, the gender gap in leisure quality is lower and in some cases, reversed.”

In all parts of the world, you can find at least some people who consider it a privilege that they don't have a job outside the home.

But, even in places where a majority feel that way, that in no way justifies making it obligatory for everyone, even those who want something else for themselves.

Christopher Hitchens was taking about this a long time ago.
But they are reproducing at a much faster rate.
If I were to make this study I would pick a list of ten things that women report as "bad treatments", verify how does each society/country do in those areas based on available statistical data or even surveys, and correlate with wealth of that society. Obviously there is the possibility that some of these metrics correlate negatively or even do not correlate with society's wealth, but an ethical study should report all findings.
Probably also true for societies that treat ANY group badly
Especially any group that represents a huge percentage of the population.
Treating people badly is always bad
Yes, it is. But if those that wielded state power (or significant cultural influence) were motivated by that, we wouldn't be having this conversation.

On the matter of measurable outcomes of social inequality, it seems logical to me that the larger the demographic[0] that is mistreated, the larger the measurable effect on society itself. This beside the ethical matters, which clearly do not motivate enough people, alas.

0 - I was tempted to put "minority" here, but women aren't a minority, now are they?

Any large group being mistreated is bad, it doesn’t matter what that group is.
Please point to where I said anything to the contrary.
Saudi Arabia is ruled by Sharia law and is no. 12 in the world for median income per capita.
Saudi Arabia has special circumstances.
I just say outright that the "special circumstances" means that their wealth comes from a magic hole in the ground and not something their society was capable of creating or producing.
Just like Norway?
In Saudia Arabia the people are basically on universal basic income. In Norway on the other hand, the oil profits are all invested into the pension fund, which is very sparingly used for any other purpose.
I would say yes, like Norway. If you have money coming out of nowhere the social stuff doesn't much matter as long as you can keep people from stealing your wealth.
Except that Norwegian oil money is only used for pensions and state investment. Your average Norwegian never sees the color of the petrodollars until their retirement, and they're still doing quite well.
Considering how much money goes into pension funds in european country, that makes it quite a lot.
According to The Source of All Truth, it's number 26: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Median_income

I wouldn't be at all surprised, though, if it ranks much higher for mean income.

That's from a self-reported telephone survey.

ie You phone people (do the immigrant "workers" on a Saudi building site have phones? Are they allowed to answer a call while working?) and you ask "How much does your household make each year?" and they make up whatever they want but you write that down, and you hope that the ludicrous high numbers and ludicrous low numbers don't make a big difference to the resulting outcome, which is probably wrong, but unlike official statistics (which Saudi Arabia of course doesn't keep) you at least got a number.

How do you figure? Wikipedia puts it 54th slightly above Lithuania, slightly below the Czech Republic and not very different on non-default measures.

[Edited to add: Aha! I was looking at per-capita GDP not a median, Saudi Arabia does not estimate a median. So, could be anything depending on who you ask]

No Gini coefficent is available for Saudi Arabia, but do you feel like the millions of immigrant workers who can be executed on the say-so of their employers are sharing equally in that great wealth?

Also, to the extent that Saudi Arabia does treat women very poorly, it also treats men very poorly, and children, and almost everybody, even the rich aren't in great shape in Saudi Arabia although they enjoy a wide range of benefits (e.g. like the US, Saudi Arabia executes criminals, but, unlike the US you can agree to pay the victim's family blood money instead, which of course is easy if you're a billionaire)

Do you think Sharia Law had anything to do with having all that oil revenue?

Since we’re on the subject of gender equality, I wonder what proportion of that income is controlled by women.

Do this explain places like Oklahoma that lead in female incarceration?
Men are treated worse in almost all societies by any logical analytic.

The woke always jump to the village leaders, not the men who die of hepatitis from cleaning the sewers. I guess if you look at averages, one billionaire + many dead men in a bar equals richer men.

Targeting men/women in programs will work, and women have had preferential targeting for decades.

It's so bad, if a project might also help men it won't get funded.

Clean water projects that stop 'humans' dying of diarrhoea will not be funded. If it allows a women to walk less to collect water then it will get funded.

If the world cared about the 10,000 kidnapped boys of Boko Haram (Many more were killed of course) then the Chibok schoolgirls kidnapping would never have happened.

We don't need more emotive talk about girls not going to school. The fucking solution is simple, as we've seen in every country in the West, raise families out of poverty.

We need to get back to helping humans.

I think that the real cause for stability and economic progress is the measure of how loving a society is to all its members, regardless of gender or any other parameters

Love leads to empathy, fairness, meaningful discussions, etc

Also seems obvious that poorer and less stable societies treat men (in general) quite badly.

I think the economist has to work a bit harder to make a compelling argument for what makes the arrow of causality go in the non-obvious direction.

"A WOMAN WHO drives a car will be killed,” says Sheikh Hazim Muhammad al-Manshad. "

I would not characterize causing someone to die as treating that person badly.

If one allows such examples than anything that is bad, but does not resort to killing (a woman in this case) could be viewed as ok - which excuses a lot of mistreatment that women still experience in our societies.

Poorer and less stable societies treat women badly…