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> computer science students should be familiar with the standard f(x)=O(g(x)) notation

I have always thought that expressing it like that instead of f(x) ∈ O(g(x)) is very confusing. I understand the desire to apply arithmetic notation of summation to represent the factors, but "concluding" this notation with equality, when it's not an equality... Is grounds for confusion.

Given this possible confusion, is it still valid to say the following two expressions are equivalent as the article does?

f(x) = g(x) + O(1)

f(x) - g(x) = O(1)

you're confused because it isn't a set

it's a notation for "some element of that set"

I think the confusion is because strictly speaking $f(x) = O(g(x))$ is an abuse of notation. $O(g(n)), \Theta(g(n))$ and friends are sets. We can't say that a function equals a set, or that a function "is less" than another function, but notoriously mathematics runs on javascript, so we try to do something instead of giving a type error.

Here "is less" is interpreted as "eventually less for all values" and "plus a set" is interpreted as "plus any function of that set".

I never liked this notation for asymptotics and I always preferred the $f(x) \in O(g(x))$ style, but it's just notation in the end.

Although, when I learned foundations of mathematics, every function was a set, and if you wanted them, you'd get plenty of junk theorems from that fact.
To me it seems similar to the + C on an antiderivative (or more generally, quotient objects). Technically, you are dealing with an equivalence class of functions, so a set. But it's usually counterproductive to think of it that way (and when you study this stuff properly, one of the first things you do is prove that you (usually) don't need to, and can instead use an arbitrary representative as a stand-in for the set), so you write F(x)+C.
I feel its not that bad an abuse of notation as kinda consistent with other areas of mathematics -

A coset, quotients r + I, affine subspaces v + W, etc. Not literal sets but comparing some representative with a class label, and the `=, +` is defined not just on the actual objects but on some other structure used to make some comparison too.

The reason it's preferred to use "=" instead of "\in" is because the way that Landau notation is generally used in practice is as a kind of ellipsis or placeholder. For example, the Taylor expansion e^x = 1 + x + O(x^2). I could just as well write e^x = 1 + x + ..., but the former conveys more meaning about what is hidden behind the ellipsis. It's an abuse of notation, but in the contexts that it's used, it's not clear what additional clarity using "\in" would bring over "=". Maybe also that big O is mainly used as a notation to facilitate doing calculations, less describing what family a function belongs to. Here are Knuth's thoughts, which I agree with: https://micromath.wordpress.com/2008/04/14/donald-knuth-calc...
when '=' is used, it no longer means "set", but "some element of that set" instead
>but notoriously mathematics runs on javascript

Lean is much more notorious for mathematics.

> We can't say that a function equals a set

Why not?

Can we not so easily speak of the set of all inputs and the set of all outputs? Why not exactly then is a function not a set of morphisms/arrows?

To me, x->x+1 and {(x,x+1)|x∈R} seem the same[1] but maybe it just seems useful to be able to make statements of the cardinality of that set: If there are a lot of rules, then that set is big, but if there are few rules (like x->x+1), that set is small. This is enough to permit some analysis.

It also preserves "plus" for sets, because a function plus a function is the sum of those rules being considered.

What is it do you think I am missing?

[1]: I understand I don't really mean big-R here because computers have limited precision for fadd/add circuits, so if you'd prefer I said something slightly differently there please imagine I did so.

> notoriously mathematics runs on javascript

After being a software engineer for a while, coming back to mathematics really felt like this at times. Amazingly good analogy.

(comment deleted)
O(1) just means "a bounded function (on a neighborhood of infinity)". Unlike f(x), which refers to some function by name, O(1) refers to some function by a property it has. It's the same principle at work in "even + odd = odd".

Programmers wringing their hands over the meaning of f(x)=O(g(x)) never seem to have manipulated any expression more complex than f(x)=O(g(x)).

I think this is the best interpretation. It is not different than writing $r+I$ for a coset.
(comment deleted)
The easiest way to read it is "there exists a function h in O(1) such that f(x) <= g(x) + h(x)."

I think first we should teach "f in O(g)" notation, then teach the above, then observe that a special case of the above is the "abuse of notation" f(x) = O(g(x)).

Maybe an easier explanation: just subtract g(x) from both sides.

You get:

  f(x) - g(x) ≤ O(1)
Now, if you already know that

  f(x) - g(x) = O(1)
means "f and g eventually differ by no more than a constant", then

  f(x) - g(x) ≤ O(1)
must mean "f eventually stops exceeding g by a constant".
You do things a bit different on an actual computer, right. As x cannot tend to infinity (so everything is O(1) by that measure) so common sense is applied.